Official NTA Question PaperFull Solved Paper2014Morning Shift
JEE Main 2014 9th April Morning Shift Question Paper with Solutions
Official solved question paper for Joint Entrance Examination (Main). Review all 90 questions, official answer keys, and detailed step-by-step solutions below, or attempt online with timer and negative marking.
An experiment is performed to obtain the value of acceleration due to gravity g by using a simple pendulum of length L. In this experiment time for 100 oscillations is measured by using a watch of 1 second least count and the value is 90.0 seconds. The length L is measured by using a meter scale of least count 1 mm and the value is 20.0 cm. The error in the determination of g would be:
A
4.4%
B
2.27%
C
1.7%
D
2.7%
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The formula for the time period T of a simple pendulum is T=2πgL. Squaring both sides gives T2=4π2gL, and rearranging for g yields g=4π2T2L.
To find the error in g, we use the relative error formula. The relative error in g is given by gΔg=LΔL+2TΔT.
First, determine the error in length L. The length L=20.0cm is measured with a meter scale of least count 1 mm = 0.1 cm. The absolute error ΔL is the least count, so ΔL=0.1cm. The relative error in L is LΔL=20.00.1=0.005.
Next, determine the error in the time period T. The time for 100 oscillations is t=90.0seconds, measured with a watch of least count 1 second. The absolute error in the time for 100 oscillations Δt is the least count, so Δt=1second. The time period T is the time for one oscillation, so T=100t=10090.0=0.9seconds. The absolute error in T is ΔT=100Δt=1001=0.01seconds. The relative error in T is TΔT=0.90.01=901≈0.011111.
Now substitute into the relative error formula for g:
gΔg=LΔL+2TΔT=0.005+2×901
Calculate the terms:
2×901=902=451≈0.022222
0.005+0.022222=0.027222
To express as a percentage, multiply by 100:
0.027222×100=2.7222%
Rounding to one decimal place gives 2.7%.
Hence, the error in the determination of g is 2.7%, which corresponds to Option D.
So, the answer is Option D.
Q 2PhysicsSection A • MCQmotion in a plane
+4 / -1
The position of a projectile launched from the origin at t = 0 is given by r=(40i^+50j^) m at t = 2s. If the projectile was launched at an angle θ from the horizontal, then θ is (take g = 10 ms−2).
A
tan−123
B
tan−132
C
tan−147
D
tan−154
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The position vector at time t=2 seconds is given as r=40i^+50j^ meters. This means the horizontal displacement x=40 m and the vertical displacement y=50 m.
For a projectile launched from the origin with initial velocity u at an angle θ to the horizontal, the equations of motion are:
Horizontal motion (no acceleration): x=uxt, where ux=ucosθ is the horizontal component of initial velocity.
Vertical motion (constant acceleration due to gravity g=10 m/s² downward): y=uyt−21gt2, where uy=usinθ is the vertical component of initial velocity.
At t=2 s, x=40 m. Substituting into the horizontal equation:
40=ux⋅2
Solving for ux:
ux=240=20 m/s
At t=2 s, y=50 m. Substituting into the vertical equation:
50=uy⋅2−21⋅10⋅(2)2
First, compute the term 21⋅10⋅4:
21⋅10=5,5⋅4=20
So the equation becomes:
50=2uy−20
Add 20 to both sides:
50+20=2uy
70=2uy
Solving for uy:
uy=270=35 m/s
The angle θ is related to the components by:
tanθ=uxuy
Substituting the values:
tanθ=2035=47
Therefore, θ=tan−1(47).
Comparing with the options:
A. tan−123
B. tan−132
C. tan−147
D. tan−154
Option C matches our result.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 3PhysicsSection A • MCQproperties of matter
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Water is flowing at a speed of 1.5 m s−1 through a horizontal tube of cross-sectional area 10−2 m2 and you are trying to stop the flow by your palm. Assuming that the water stops immediately after hitting the palm, the minimum force that you must exert should be (density of water = 103 kg m−3)
A
33.7 N
B
45 N
C
15 N
D
22.5 N
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To solve this problem, we need to find the minimum force required to stop the flow of water using your palm. The water flows at a speed of 1.5 m/s through a tube with a cross-sectional area of 10−2 m², and it stops immediately upon hitting the palm. The density of water is 103 kg/m³.
The force exerted by the palm must counteract the momentum of the incoming water per unit time. Force is defined as the rate of change of momentum. When the water hits the palm and stops, its velocity changes from 1.5 m/s to 0 m/s. The change in velocity (Δv) is therefore 1.5−0=1.5 m/s.
First, we calculate the volume flow rate, which is the volume of water passing through the tube per second. This is given by the product of the cross-sectional area (A) and the flow velocity (v):
Volume flow rate = A×v=10−2m2×1.5m/s=0.015m3/s.
Next, we find the mass flow rate, which is the mass of water flowing per second. This is obtained by multiplying the volume flow rate by the density of water (ρ):
Mass flow rate = ρ×volume flow rate=103kg/m3×0.015m3/s=15kg/s.
The rate of change of momentum is equal to the mass flow rate multiplied by the change in velocity (Δv), since the water comes to a complete stop:
Rate of change of momentum = mass flow rate ×Δv=15kg/s×1.5m/s=22.5kg⋅m/s2.
Since 1N=1kg⋅m/s2, the force required is 22.5 N. This is the minimum force needed to stop the water flow, assuming an immediate stop with no other losses.
Comparing with the options: A. 33.7 N, B. 45 N, C. 15 N, D. 22.5 N. Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 4PhysicsSection A • MCQlaws of motion
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A block A of mass 4 kg is placed on another block B of mass 5 kg, and the block B rests on a smooth horizontal table. If the minimum force that can be applied on A so that both the blocks move together is 12 N, the maximum force that can be applied on B for the blocks to move together will be:
A
0 N
B
25 N
C
48 N
D
27 N
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
f=fk=μkR=μkm1g
12=fk=μk×4g
∴μk=4g12=g3
As block B is on smooth surface, therefore to move A and B together, maximum force F required to be applied on B= frictional force applied on A by B
F=g3(4+5)g=27N
Q 5PhysicsSection A • MCQrotational motion
+4 / -1
A cylinder of mass MC and sphere of mass MS are placed at points A and B of two inclines, respectively. (See figure). If they roll on the incline without slipping such that their accelerations are the same, then the ratio sinθSsinθC is:
A
75
B
78
C
1415
D
1415
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The linear acceleration a of a rigid body rolling down an inclined plane of angle θ without slipping is given by:
a=1+MR2Igsinθ
Assuming a standard solid cylinder, its moment of inertia is I=21MCR2,
aC=1+21gsinθC=23gsinθC=32gsinθC
Assuming a standard solid sphere, its moment of inertia is I=52MSR2,
aS=1+52gsinθS=57gsinθS=75gsinθS
32gsinθC=75gsinθS
sinθSsinθC=3275=75×23=1415
Q 6PhysicsSection A • MCQgravitation
+4 / -1
India's Mangalyan was sent to the Mars by launching it into a transfer orbit EOM around the sun. It leaves the earth at E and meets Mars at M. If the semi-major axis of Earth's orbit is ae=1.5×1011 m, that of Mar's orbit am=2.28×1011 m, taking Kepler's laws, give the estimate of time for Mangalyan to reach Mars from Earth.
A
220 days
B
500 days
C
260 days
D
320 days
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To estimate the time taken for Mangalyan to travel from Earth to Mars using a transfer orbit around the sun, we apply Kepler's laws. The transfer orbit is elliptical, with the sun at one focus. Mangalyan leaves Earth at perihelion (closest point to the sun) and meets Mars at aphelion (farthest point). The semi-major axis of Earth's orbit is given as ae=1.5×1011 m, and for Mars, am=2.28×1011 m.
For the transfer orbit, the perihelion distance equals Earth's orbital radius (ae), and the aphelion distance equals Mars' orbital radius (am). The semi-major axis of the transfer orbit (at) is the average of these distances:
at=2ae+am=21.5×1011+2.28×1011=23.78×1011=1.89×1011 m
Kepler's third law states that the square of the orbital period (T) is proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis (a): T2∝a3. For Earth, the orbital period Te is 1 year (365 days), and the semi-major axis is ae. For the transfer orbit, the period Tt relates to at by the same proportionality constant. Therefore, we can write:
Te2Tt2=ae3at3
Solving for Tt:
Tt=Te(aeat)3/2
The travel time from Earth to Mars is half the period of the transfer orbit, as Mangalyan travels from perihelion to aphelion, covering half the ellipse. Thus, the travel time τ is:
τ=2Tt=2Te(aeat)3/2
Substitute the values Te=365 days, at=1.89×1011 m, and ae=1.5×1011 m:
Now, (1.26)3/2=(1.26)3=2.000376. Using 2≈1.414213562 and approximating 2.000376≈2×1.000188≈1.414213562×(1+20.000188)=1.414213562×1.000094≈1.414213562+1.414213562×0.000094:
The calculated travel time is approximately 258.12 days. Comparing with the options:
A. 220 days
B. 500 days
C. 260 days
D. 320 days
The value 258.12 days is closest to 260 days.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 7PhysicsSection A • MCQproperties of matter
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In materials like aluminium and copper, the correct order of magnitude of various elastic modulii is:
A
Young's modulii < shear modulii < bulk modulii
B
Bulk modulii < shear modulii < Young's modulii
C
Shear modulii < Young's modulii < bulk modulii
D
Bulk modulii < Young's modulii < shear modulii
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Since it takes significantly less effort to twist or slide a metal block than it does to stretch it or compress its entire volume, the energy required scales accordingly. Therefore, the resistance to changing shape is the lowest, while the resistance to changing volume is the highest, giving the order: Shear moduli < Young's moduli < bulk moduli
Q 8PhysicsSection A • MCQproperties of matter
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A capillary tube is immersed vertically in water and the height of the water column is x. When this arrangement is taken into a mine of depth d, the height of the water column is y. If R is the radius of earth, the ratio yx is:
A
(R+dR−d)
B
(R−dR+d)
C
(1−R2d)
D
(1−Rd)
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The height of the water column in a capillary tube is given by the formula:
h=ρgr2Scosθ
where S is the surface tension, θ is the contact angle, ρ is the density of water, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and r is the radius of the capillary tube.
Since the capillary tube and the liquid (water) are the same in both scenarios, S, θ, ρ, and r are constant. Therefore, the height h is inversely proportional to g:
h∝g1
At the Earth's surface, the height is x, so:
x∝gsurface1
In the mine at depth d, the height is y, so:
y∝gmine1
The ratio yx is:
yx=gsurfacegmine
Now, we need to find how g changes with depth. The acceleration due to gravity at a depth d below the Earth's surface is given by:
gmine=gsurface(1−Rd)
where R is the radius of the Earth. This is because, at depth d, only the mass of the Earth within the sphere of radius R−d contributes to gravity, and under the assumption of uniform density, g decreases linearly with depth.
Therefore, substituting this into the ratio:
gsurfacegmine=1−Rd
So, the ratio yx is:
yx=1−Rd
Comparing with the options:
A. (R+dR−d)
B. (R−dR+d)
C. (1−R2d)
D. (1−Rd)
Option D matches the derived expression.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 9PhysicsSection A • MCQthermal properties of matter
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Water of volume 2 L in a closed container is heated with a coil of 1 kW. While water is heated, the container loses energy at a rate of 160 J/s. In how much time will the temperature of water rise from 27°C to 77°C? (Specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg and that of the container is negligible).
A
8 min 20 s
B
7 min
C
14 min
D
6 min 2 s
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given that the volume of water is 2 liters. Since the density of water is 1 kg/L, the mass of water is 2 kg.
The heating coil provides energy at a rate of 1 kW. Since 1 kW equals 1000 W and 1 W is 1 J/s, the coil supplies 1000 J/s.
The container loses energy at a rate of 160 J/s. Therefore, the net energy absorbed by the water per second is the energy supplied by the coil minus the energy lost by the container:
Net energy per second=1000J/s−160J/s=840J/s
The temperature needs to rise from 27°C to 77°C. The change in temperature is:
ΔT=77∘C−27∘C=50∘C
The specific heat of water is given as 4.2 kJ/kg·°C. Converting to joules: 4.2 kJ/kg·°C = 4.2 × 1000 = 4200 J/kg·°C.
The total heat energy required to raise the temperature of the water is given by:
Q=m⋅c⋅ΔT
Substituting the values:
Q=2kg×4200J/kg⋅°C×50∘C
First, multiply the mass and specific heat:
2×4200=8400
Then multiply by the temperature change:
8400×50=420000J
So, the total heat required is 420,000 J.
The net energy supplied per second is 840 J/s. The time t in seconds required to supply 420,000 J is:
t=Net energy per secondTotal heat=840420000
Simplifying the fraction:
840420000=840÷120420000÷120=73500=500seconds
Alternatively, note that 840 × 500 = 420,000, so t=500 seconds.
Converting 500 seconds to minutes and seconds: since 1 minute = 60 seconds,
Minutes=⌊60500⌋=⌊8.333…⌋=8minutes
The remaining seconds are:
500−(8×60)=500−480=20seconds
Thus, the time is 8 minutes and 20 seconds.
Comparing with the options, Option A is 8 min 20 s.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 10PhysicsSection A • MCQkinetic theory of gases
+4 / -1
The equation of state for a gas is given by PV=nRT+αV, where n is the number of moles and α is a positive constant. The initial temperature and pressure of one mole of the gas contained in a cylinder are T0 and P0 respectively. The work done by the gas when its temperature doubles isobarically will be:
A
P0T0ln2
B
P0+αP0T0R
C
P0−αP0T0R
D
P0T0R
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
PV=nRT+αV
PV=RT+αV (n=1)
PV−αV=RT
V(P−α)=RT⟹V=P−αRT
Vinitial=P0−αRT0
Vfinal=P0−αR(2T0)=P0−α2RT0
W=P0⋅ΔV=P0(Vfinal−Vinitial)
W=P0(P0−α2RT0−P0−αRT0)
W=P0(P0−αRT0)
W=P0−αP0T0R
Q 11PhysicsSection A • MCQkinetic theory of gases
+4 / -1
Modern vacuum pumps can evacuate a vessel down to a pressure of 4.0×10−15 atm. at room temperature (300 K). Taking R = 8.3 JK−1 mole−1, 1 atm = 105 Pa and NAvogadro=6×1023 mole−1, the mean distance between molecules of gas in an evacuated vessel will be of the order of:
A
0.2 μm
B
0.2 mm
C
0.2 cm
D
0.2 nm
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To find the mean distance between molecules in the evacuated vessel, we start by using the ideal gas law and the given parameters. The pressure is 4.0×10−15 atm, but we need it in Pascals since other units are in SI. Given that 1 atm = 105 Pa, we convert:
Pressure P=4.0×10−15×105=4.0×10−10 Pa.
The temperature T=300 K, gas constant R=8.3 J K−1 mol−1, and Avogadro's number NA=6×1023 mol−1. The mean distance between molecules is related to the number density nv, which is the number of molecules per cubic meter. From the ideal gas law:
PV=nRT
where n is the number of moles. Since the number of molecules N=n×NA, we substitute:
PV=(NAN)RT
Rearranging for pressure:
P=VN×NAR×T
Here, VN=nv is the number density, and NAR=k is Boltzmann's constant. So:
P=nvkT
Solving for nv:
nv=kTP
But k=NAR, so:
nv=RTPNA
Now plug in the values:
nv=8.3×300(4.0×10−10)×(6×1023)
First, calculate the numerator:
4.0×10−10×6×1023=24×1013=2.4×1014
Next, the denominator:
8.3×300=2490
So:
nv=24902.4×1014
Dividing:
2490=2.49×103
nv=2.49×1032.4×1014=2.492.4×1011≈0.964×1011=9.64×1010 molecules per cubic meter.
The volume per molecule Vm is the reciprocal of nv:
Vm=nv1=9.64×10101≈1.037×10−11 cubic meters.
The mean distance d between molecules is approximately the cube root of the volume per molecule, since each molecule occupies a cubic space:
d=(Vm)1/3=(1.037×10−11)1/3
We can separate the terms:
d=(1.037)1/3×(10−11)1/3
First, (10−11)1/3=10−11/3=10−3.6667. Since 10−3=0.001 and 10−0.6667≈0.2154 (because 102/3≈4.6416, so 10−2/3≈1/4.6416≈0.2154), we get:
10−3.6667≈0.001×0.2154=2.154×10−4
Next, (1.037)1/3. Using approximation (1+x)n≈1+nx for small x, where x=0.037 and n=1/3:
(1.037)1/3≈1+30.037=1+0.012333≈1.012333
But a more accurate calculation shows that 1.0123=1.03643488, which is slightly less than 1.037. The difference is 1.037−1.03643488=0.00056512. The derivative of x3 is 3x2, so at x=1.012, 3×(1.012)2≈3×1.024144=3.072432. The increment is:
Δx≈3.0724320.00056512≈0.000184
Thus:
(1.037)1/3≈1.012+0.000184=1.012184
Now multiply:
d≈1.012184×2.154×10−4≈2.1807×10−4 meters.
Converting to millimeters (since 1 meter = 1000 mm):
2.1807×10−4 m=0.21807 mm
This value is approximately 0.22 mm, which is of the same order as 0.2 mm (both are 10−4 meters). The options are in different units, so comparing:
A. 0.2 μm = 0.2×10−6 m = 2×10−7 m
B. 0.2 mm = 0.2×10−3 m = 2×10−4 m
C. 0.2 cm = 0.2×10−2 m = 2×10−3 m
D. 0.2 nm = 0.2×10−9 m = 2×10−10 m
Our calculated distance 2.18×10−4 m is closest to 2×10−4 m, which is 0.2 mm.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 12PhysicsSection A • MCQoscillations
+4 / -1
Two bodies of masses 1 kg and 4 kg are connected to a vertical spring, as shown in the figure. The smaller mass executes simple harmonic motion of angular frequency 25 rad s−1, and amplitude 1.6 cm while the bigger mass remains stationary on the ground. The maximum force exerted by the system on the floor is (take g=10 m s−2).
A
20 N
B
60 N
C
40 N
D
10 N
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The force exerted by the system on the floor is the sum of the weight of the 4 kg mass and the downward force exerted by the spring.
The spring constant k can be determined from the angular frequency ω and the oscillating mass m1=1 kg:
k=m1ω2=1×(25)2=625 N/m
kx0=m1g⟹x0=6251×10 m
Fs,max=k(x0+A)=kx0+kA
Fs,max=m1g+kA=10+(625×0.016)=10+10=20 N
Ffloor=m2g+Fs,max
Ffloor=(4×10)+20=40+20=60 N
Q 13PhysicsSection A • MCQoscillations
+4 / -1
The amplitude of a simple pendulum, oscillating in air with a small spherical bob, decreases from 10 cm to 8 cm in 40 seconds. Assuming that Stokes law is valid, and ratio of the coefficient of viscosity of air to that of carbon dioxide is 1.3, the time in which amplitude of this pendulum will reduce from 10 cm to 5 cm in carbondioxide will be close to (ln 5 = 1.601, ln 2 = 0.693).
A
231 s
B
142 s
C
208 s
D
161 s
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
For a damped pendulum oscillating in a medium, the amplitude decays exponentially as A=A0e−bt/2m, where b is the damping coefficient proportional to the viscosity η of the medium (by Stokes law, b∝η).
In air, the amplitude decreases from 10 cm to 8 cm in 40 seconds. So 8=10e−bair⋅40/2m, which gives e−20bair/m=4/5. Taking the natural logarithm, m20bair=ln(45)=ln5−2ln2=1.601−1.386=0.215.
In carbon dioxide, we need the time t for the amplitude to reduce from 10 cm to 5 cm. So 5=10e−bCO2t/2m, which gives 2mbCO2t=ln2=0.693.
Since ηair/ηCO2=1.3, we have bCO2=bair/1.3. Substituting, t=bCO22m×0.693=bair2m×0.693×1.3. From the air data, bair/m=0.215/20=0.01075, so m/bair=1/0.01075.
Therefore, t=0.010752×0.693×1.3=0.010751.8018≈161 s. The closest answer among the given options is 161 s.
Q 14PhysicsSection A • MCQoscillations
+4 / -1
A particle which is simultaneously subjected to two perpendicular simple harmonic motions represented by; x=a1cosωt and y=a2cos2ωt traces a curve given by:
A
B
C
D
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
x=a1cosωt⟹cosωt=a1x
y=a2cos2ωt
y=a2(2cos2ωt−1)
y=a2[2(a1x)2−1]
y=a122a2x2−a2
This equation is of the form y=kx2−c, which represents a parabola symmetric about the y-axis with its vertex at (0,−a2).
The curve opens upwards because the coefficient of x2 is positive. At x=±a1, y=a2[2(1)−1]=a2. At x=0, y=−a2.
This matches the plot shown in option D.
Q 15PhysicsSection A • MCQwaves
+4 / -1
A transverse wave is represented by: y=π10sin(T2πt−λ2πx). For what value of the wavelength the wave velocity is twice the maximum particle velocity?
A
40 cm
B
60 cm
C
10 cm
D
20 cm
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
From the wave equation y=π10sin(T2πt−λ2πx), amplitude A=π10 and the wave velocity vw=kω=Tλ.
The maximum particle velocity is given by vp(max)=Aω=(π10)(T2π)=T20. Substituting these into the given condition vw=2vp(max) yields Tλ=2×T20, which simplifies to λ=40 cm.
Q 16PhysicsSection A • MCQelectrostatics
+4 / -1
The magnitude of the average electric field normally present in the atmosphere just above the surface of the Earth is about 150 N/C, directed inward towards the center of the Earth. This gives the total net surface charge carried by the Earth to be: [Given: ϵ0=8.85×10−12 C2/N-m2, RE=6.37×106 m]
A
−680 kC
B
+670 kC
C
+680 kC
D
−670 kC
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The electric field is directed inward toward the center of the Earth, meaning it points in the direction opposite to the outward normal of the Earth's surface. By Gauss's law, the total charge enclosed is Q=ϵ0∮E⋅dA. Since E is directed inward and dA points outward, E⋅dA=−EdA, giving Q=−ϵ0E×4πRE2.
Substituting the given values: Q=−8.85×10−12×150×4π×(6.37×106)2. Computing RE2=(6.37)2×1012=40.58×1012 m2, and 4πRE2=4π×40.58×1012=5.099×1014 m2.
So Q=−8.85×10−12×150×5.099×1014=−8.85×150×5.099×102=−8.85×76485≈−6.77×105 C =−677 kC, which is approximately −680 kC.
Q 17PhysicsSection A • MCQcapacitor
+4 / -1
Three capacitances, each of 3 μF, are provided. These cannot be combined to provide the resultant capacitance of:
A
2 μF
B
6 μF
C
4.5 μF
D
1 μF
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Each capacitor has capacitance C=3μF.
To obtain an equivalent capacitance we must connect all three capacitors, using any series-parallel arrangement. With three identical capacitors there are only four essentially different ways to combine them.
Case 1:
All three in series. Ceq=3C=33=1μF
Case 2:
All three in parallel. Ceq=3C=3×3=9μF
Case 3:
Two in series, that pair in parallel with the third.
Series pair: Cs=2C=23=1.5μF
Putting this in parallel with the remaining 3μF capacitor: Ceq=Cs+C=1.5+3=4.5μF
Case 4:
Two in parallel, that pair in series with the third.
Parallel pair: Cp=2C=2×3=6μF
Putting this in series with the remaining 3μF capacitor: Ceq1=Cp1+C1=61+31=61+62=63
so Ceq=36=2μF
Thus the only equivalent capacitances obtainable with all three 3μF capacitors are
1μF,2μF,4.5μF,9μF
From the given options the value that cannot be produced is Option B: 6μF.
Q 18PhysicsSection A • MCQcurrent electricity
+4 / -1
A d.c. main supply of e.m.f. 220 V is connected across a storage battery of e.m.f. 200 V through a resistance of 1 Ω. The battery terminals are connected to external resistance R. The minimum value of R, so that a current passes through the battery to charge it is:
A
9 Ω
B
7 Ω
C
11 Ω
D
0
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The circuit consists of a DC main supply of 220 V connected across a storage battery of 200 V through a 1 Ω resistance. The battery terminals are also connected to an external resistance R. We need to find the minimum value of R such that current flows through the battery to charge it, meaning current enters the positive terminal of the battery.
First, we assume the battery has no internal resistance, as it is not specified in the problem. Therefore, the voltage across the battery terminals is always equal to its EMF, which is 200 V. Let the common negative terminal be point C, and the positive terminal of the supply be point A. The supply is connected to a 1 Ω resistor, and the other end of this resistor is connected to the positive terminal of the battery (point B) and one end of R. The negative terminal of the battery and the other end of R are connected to point C.
Since the voltage at point B with respect to point C is the same as the battery voltage, VBC=200 V. The supply voltage is 220 V between A and C, so VAC=220 V. The voltage drop across the 1 Ω resistor (between A and B) is VAB=VAC−VBC=220−200=20 V.
The current through the 1 Ω resistor, flowing from A to B, is given by Ohm's law: I=1ΩVAB=120=20 A.
At junction B, this current I splits into two parts: Ib through the battery and IR through the external resistance R. Applying Kirchhoff's current law: I=Ib+IR, so 20=Ib+IR.
The voltage across R is the same as VBC=200 V, so by Ohm's law, IR=RVBC=R200. Substituting this in: 20=Ib+R200.
For the battery to charge, current must enter its positive terminal, so Ib>0. Therefore, 20−R200>0. Solving this inequality:
20>R200
Since R is positive, multiply both sides by R: 20R>200.
Divide both sides by 20: R>10Ω.
Thus, R must be greater than 10 Ω for charging to occur. The minimum value of R in the given options that satisfies this condition is 11 Ω.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 19PhysicsSection A • MCQmagnetism and matter
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The mid points of two small magnetic dipoles of length d in end-on positions, are separated by a distance x (x≫d). The magnitude of force between them is proportional to x−n where n is:
A
3
B
4
C
2
D
1
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The magnetic field B produced by the first dipole at the center of the second dipole along its axis is B=4πμ0x32M1
U=−M2⋅B=−M2Bcos(0∘)=−4πμ0x32M1M2
F=−dxdU=−dxd(−4πμ0x32M1M2)
F=4πμ0(2M1M2)dxd(x−3)
F=4πμ0(2M1M2)(−3x−4)
∣F∣∝x−4
n=4
Q 20PhysicsSection A • MCQmagnetism and matter
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The magnetic field of earth at the equator is approximately 4×10−5 T. The radius of earth is 6.4×106 m. Then the dipole moment of the earth will be nearly of the order of:
A
1020 A m2
B
1016 A m2
C
1010 A m2
D
1023 A m2
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The magnetic field (Beq) on the equatorial line of a dipole is given by:
Beq=4πμ0R3M
M=4πμ0Beq⋅R3
M=10−74×10−5×(6.4×106)3
M≈1.05×1023 A m2
Q 21PhysicsSection A • MCQalternating current
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When the rms voltages VL, VC and VR are measured respectively across the inductor L, the capacitor C and the resistor R in a series LCR circuit connected to an AC source, it is found that the ratio VL:VC:VR=1:2:3. If the rms voltage of the AC source is 100 V, then VR is close to:
A
50 V
B
70 V
C
100 V
D
95 V
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
V=VR2+(VC−VL)2
The given ratio of the RMS voltages is VL:VC:VR=1:2:3.
VL=31VR and VC=32VR
V=VR2+(32VR−31VR)2
V=VR2+91VR2=910VR2=310VR
100=310VR
VR=30×3.162≈94.86 V (close to 95 V)
Q 22PhysicsSection A • MCQelectromagnetic waves
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Match List I (Wavelength range of electromagnetic spectrum) with List II (Method of production of these waves) and select the correct option from the options given below the lists.
List I: List II: (a) 700 nm to 1 mm (i) Vibration of atoms and molecules (b) 1 nm to 400 nm (ii) Inner shell electrons in atoms moving from one energy level to a lower level (c) < 10−3 nm (iii) Radioactive decay of the nucleus (d) 1 mm to 0.1 m (iv) Magnetron valve
A
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
B
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
C
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
D
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
First, let's recall the electromagnetic spectrum and the typical methods of production for each type of wave. We need to match the wavelength ranges in List I with the production methods in List II.
Starting with (a) from List I: 700 nm to 1 mm. This range corresponds to infrared waves. Infrared waves are primarily produced by the vibrations of atoms and molecules, especially in heated objects. Therefore, (a) matches with (i) from List II.
Next, (b) from List I: 1 nm to 400 nm. This range includes both X-rays and ultraviolet (UV) waves. Specifically, X-rays have wavelengths from about 0.01 nm to 10 nm, while UV waves range from about 10 nm to 400 nm. The production method involving inner shell electrons moving between energy levels is characteristic of X-rays. Since X-rays fall within this range (1 nm to 10 nm), and the method describes X-ray production, (b) matches with (ii) from List II.
Now, (c) from List I: less than 10−3 nm (which is less than 0.001 nm). This extremely short wavelength corresponds to gamma rays. Gamma rays are produced during radioactive decay of atomic nuclei. Therefore, (c) matches with (iii) from List II.
Finally, (d) from List I: 1 mm to 0.1 m. This range falls within microwaves, which are a subset of radio waves. Microwaves are commonly produced using magnetron valves, as seen in devices like microwave ovens. Thus, (d) matches with (iv) from List II.
Summarizing the matches:
(a) 700 nm to 1 mm → (i) Vibration of atoms and molecules
(b) 1 nm to 400 nm → (ii) Inner shell electrons in atoms moving from one energy level to a lower level
(c) < 10−3 nm → (iii) Radioactive decay of the nucleus
A diver looking up through the water sees the outside world contained in a circular horizon. The refractive index of water is 34, and the diver's eyes are 15 cm below the surface of the water. Then the radius of the circle is:
A
315×7 cm
B
715×3 cm
C
15×37 cm
D
15×3×5 cm
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The diver is looking up from below the water surface, and the circular horizon is formed due to the phenomenon of total internal reflection. The refractive index of water, denoted as μ, is given as 34. The diver's eyes are at a depth of 15 cm below the water surface.
To find the radius of the circular horizon, we consider the critical angle, θc, which is the angle of incidence in the denser medium (water) for which the angle of refraction in air is 90 degrees. The formula for the critical angle is:
sinθc=μ1
Substituting μ=34:
sinθc=341=43
So, sinθc=43.
Now, light rays from the horizon are very far away and travel horizontally in air. When such a ray hits the water surface at point A, the angle of incidence in air is 90 degrees because the ray is horizontal and the normal to the water surface is vertical. Applying Snell's law at the air-water interface:
μairsini=μwatersinr
Since μair≈1 and i=90∘:
1⋅sin90∘=34⋅sinr
sin90∘=1, so:
1=34sinr
Solving for sinr:
sinr=43
Thus, the angle of refraction in water, r, equals the critical angle θc, so r=θc and sinr=43.
In the water, the refracted ray makes an angle r with the normal (vertical). Therefore, the angle between the refracted ray and the horizontal is 90∘−r. The diver's eye is at point E, 15 cm directly below point O on the water surface. The refracted ray travels from point A on the water surface to point E. Let the horizontal distance OA be the radius x cm, which we need to find.
Consider the right triangle OAE, where:
O is the point directly above E on the water surface,
A is the point where the refracted ray meets the water surface,
E is the diver's eye.
This triangle is right-angled at O, with OE = 15 cm (vertical) and OA = x cm (horizontal). The angle at A in triangle OAE is the angle between OA (horizontal) and AE (the refracted ray), which is 90∘−r.
In triangle OAE:
Opposite side to angle at A is OE = 15 cm,
Adjacent side to angle at A is OA = x cm.
Therefore:
tan(90∘−r)=adjacentopposite=x15
Since tan(90∘−r)=cotr:
cotr=x15
Solving for x:
x=15⋅tanr
We know sinr=43. To find tanr, we use:
tanr=cosrsinr
First, find cosr:
cosr=1−sin2r=1−(43)2=1−169=167=47
Now,
tanr=cosrsinr=4743=43⋅74=73
Substitute into the expression for x:
x=15⋅73=745 cm
This matches option B: 715×3 cm.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 24PhysicsSection A • MCQray optics
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The focal lengths of objective lens and eye lens of a Galilean Telescope are respectively 30 cm and 3.0 cm. Telescope produces virtual, erect image of an object situated far away from it at least distance of distinct vision from the eye lens. In this condition the Magnifying Power of the Galilean Telescope should be:
A
+8.8
B
−11.2
C
+11.2
D
−8.8
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
In a Galilean telescope, the objective lens is converging with focal length fo=30 cm, and the eye lens is diverging with focal length fe=−3 cm. The final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision, D=25 cm, on the same side as the object for the eye lens, so ve=−25 cm.
Using the thin lens formula for the eye lens: ve1−ue1=fe1, we get −251−ue1=−31. Solving, ue1=31−251=7525−3=7522, so ue=2275 cm. The positive value of ue confirms the intermediate image is virtual and on the same side as the final image, which is characteristic of a Galilean telescope.
The magnifying power of a Galilean telescope when the final image is at the least distance of distinct vision is given by M=∣fe∣fo(1+D∣fe∣)=330(1+253)=10×2528=25280=+11.2. The positive sign indicates an erect image, consistent with the Galilean telescope.
Q 25PhysicsSection A • MCQwave optics
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Using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, an experimentalist sets up the Young's double slit experiment in three ways as shown. If she observes that y=β′, the wavelength of light used is:
A
520 nm
B
580 nm
C
540 nm
D
560 nm
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The standard formula for fringe width is β=dλD.
From Case 1: The initial configuration has a screen distance D and slit separation d. β=dλD
From Case 3: The screen distance is doubled to 2D, while the slit separation remains d. The new fringe width is β′=dλ(2D)=2β
From Case 2: When a transparent mica sheet of thickness t and refractive index μ is introduced in front of one of the slits, the entire fringe pattern shifts. The distance y that the central fringe shifts is given by the formula:
y=dD(μ−1)t
We are given the condition: y=β′
dD(μ−1)t=dλ(2D)
(μ−1)t=2λ
(1.6−1)×(1.8×10−6)=2λ
0.6×1.8×10−6=2λ
1.08×10−6=2λ
λ=21.08×10−6=0.54×10−6 m
λ=540×10−9 m=540 nm
Q 26PhysicsSection A • MCQdual nature of matter and radiation
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For which of the following particles will it be most difficult to experimentally verify the de-Broglie relationship?
A
An electron
B
An α-particle
C
A dust particle
D
A proton
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The de-Broglie relationship states that the wavelength λ associated with a moving particle is given by λ=ph, where h is Planck's constant and p is the momentum of the particle. The momentum p is equal to m×v, where m is the mass and v is the velocity. Therefore, λ=mvh.
To experimentally verify the de-Broglie relationship, we need to observe wave-like behavior such as diffraction or interference. This requires the de-Broglie wavelength to be comparable to the size of the slits or obstacles in the experiment, typically on the order of atomic dimensions (about 10−10 m). If the wavelength is too small, the wave effects become negligible and difficult to detect.
The wavelength λ is inversely proportional to the mass m for a given velocity v. Therefore, heavier particles will have shorter wavelengths, making it harder to observe their wave nature.
Now, comparing the masses of the given particles:
An electron has a mass of approximately 9.1×10−31 kg.
A proton has a mass of approximately 1.67×10−27 kg, which is about 1836 times the mass of an electron.
An α-particle (helium nucleus) has a mass of approximately 6.64×10−27 kg, which is about 4 times the mass of a proton.
A dust particle is macroscopic. Even a very small dust particle, say with a diameter of 1 micrometer and density of 2000 kg/m³, has a mass of about 10−15 kg. This is many orders of magnitude larger than subatomic particles.
Since the dust particle has the largest mass, its de-Broglie wavelength will be the smallest for the same velocity. For example, assuming the same velocity v:
λelectron=mevh
λdust=mdustvh
Given mdust≈10−15 kg and me≈10−30 kg (approximately), the ratio is:
λelectronλdust=mdustme≈10−1510−30=10−15
Thus, λdust is about 1015 times smaller than λelectron. Even if the dust particle is moving very fast, its wavelength remains extremely small. For instance, with typical velocities, λdust might be around 10−25 m or smaller, far below atomic scales (10−10 m), making it impossible to detect with current technology.
In contrast, electrons, protons, and α-particles have been used in experiments like electron diffraction or Rutherford scattering to confirm wave-particle duality because their wavelengths are measurable.
Hence, the dust particle poses the greatest experimental challenge for verifying the de-Broglie relationship.
So, the answer is Option C.
Q 27PhysicsSection A • MCQatoms and nuclei
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If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, the energy required to remove the electron from the first excited state of Li++ is:
A
13.6 eV
B
3.4 eV
C
122.4 eV
D
30.6 eV
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The binding energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom is given as 13.6 eV, which corresponds to the energy required to remove the electron from the ground state (n=1) of hydrogen. For hydrogen-like atoms, the energy of an electron in a particular state is given by the formula:
En=−n213.6Z2 eV
where Z is the atomic number and n is the principal quantum number.
The question asks for the energy required to remove the electron from the first excited state of Li⁺⁺. Lithium has an atomic number Z=3, so Li⁺⁺ is a hydrogen-like ion with one electron. The first excited state corresponds to n=2 because the ground state is n=1, and the next state is n=2.
Substituting Z=3 and n=2 into the energy formula:
E2=−(2)213.6×(3)2
First, compute 32=9 and 22=4:
E2=−413.6×9
Now, multiply 13.6 by 9:
13.6×9=122.4
So the expression becomes:
E2=−4122.4
Divide 122.4 by 4:
122.4÷4=30.6
Therefore:
E2=−30.6 eV
The energy required to remove the electron (binding energy) is the magnitude of this energy, since it represents the energy needed to take the electron from its bound state to infinity (where energy is zero). Thus, the binding energy is:
∣E2∣=30.6 eV
Comparing with the options:
A. 13.6 eV
B. 3.4 eV
C. 122.4 eV
D. 30.6 eV
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 28PhysicsSection A • MCQsemiconductor devices and logic gates
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An n-p-n transistor has three leads A, B and C. Connecting B and C by moist fingers, A to the positive lead of an ammeter, and C to the negative lead of the ammeter, one finds large deflection. Then, A, B and C refer respectively to:
A
Base, emitter and collector
B
Base, collector and emitter
C
Emitter, base and collector
D
Collector, emitter and base
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
In an n−p−n transistor, connecting the positive lead of the ammeter to terminal A forward-biases the p-type material, identifying A as the Base. Terminal C is connected directly to the negative lead of the ammeter, while terminal B is only connected indirectly through the resistance of moist fingers. To produce the observed large current deflection, the terminal tied directly to the negative ground must supply a massive amount of charge carriers. Since the Emitter is the most heavily doped region, C must be the Emitter, leaving B as the Collector
Q 29PhysicsSection A • MCQsemiconductor devices and logic gates
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Identify the gate and match A, B, Y in the bracket to check.
A
OR (A = 1, B = 1, Y = 0)
B
XOR (A = 0, B = 0, Y = 0)
C
NOT (A = 1, B = 1, Y = 1)
D
AND (A = 1, B = 1, Y = 1)
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The first gate is a standard two-input NAND gate. Its output is the inverse of the AND operation:
Output1=A⋅B
The second gate is a NAND gate with its inputs tied together. The output of the first gate is inverted by the second gate:
Y=NOT(Output1)=A⋅B
Y=A⋅B
Q 30PhysicsSection A • MCQcommunication systems
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A transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has a height 32 m and the height of the receiving antenna is 50 m. What is the maximum distance between them for satisfactory communication in line of sight (LOS) mode?
A
45.5 km
B
54.5 km
C
55.4 km
D
455 km
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To find the maximum distance for satisfactory communication in line of sight (LOS) mode between a transmitting antenna of height 32 m and a receiving antenna of height 50 m, we use the formula that accounts for the curvature of the Earth. The maximum LOS distance d is the sum of the individual horizon distances from each antenna:
d=2Rht+2Rhr
where:
R is the radius of the Earth, approximately 6400 km,
ht is the height of the transmitting antenna in km,
hr is the height of the receiving antenna in km.
First, convert the heights from meters to kilometers:
ht=32m=100032km=0.032km
hr=50m=100050km=0.050km
Substitute the values into the formula:
d=2×6400×0.032+2×6400×0.050
Calculate each term separately. Start with the first term:
2×6400=12800
12800×0.032=409.6
409.6=104096=104096=1064(since 642=4096)
Now the second term:
12800×0.050=640
640=64×10=64×10=810
Combine both terms:
d=1064+810
To add these, express them with a common denominator:
810=10810×10=108×10=1080
d=1064+1080=10144
Rationalize the denominator:
d=10144×1010=1014410=10144×10=14.410
Now, approximate 10≈3.162:
d≈14.4×3.162
Calculate step by step:
14.4×3=43.2
14.4×0.162=14.4×0.16=2.304and14.4×0.002=0.0288
2.304+0.0288=2.3328
d≈43.2+2.3328=45.5328km
Rounding to one decimal place, d≈45.5km.
Comparing with the options, 45.5 km corresponds to option A.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 31ChemistrySection A • MCQsolutions
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Dissolving 120 g of a compound of (mol. wt. 60) in 1000 g of water gave a solution of density 1.12 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is:
A
2.50 M
B
1.00 M
C
2.00 M
D
4.00 M
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
First, we need to find the molarity of the solution. Molarity is defined as the number of moles of solute per liter of solution. So, we must calculate two things: the number of moles of the compound and the volume of the solution in liters.
We are given:
Mass of compound = 120 g
Molar mass of compound = 60 g/mol
Mass of water = 1000 g
Density of solution = 1.12 g/mL
Step 1: Calculate the number of moles of the compound.
Number of moles = mass of compound / molar mass
So, moles = 60 g/mol120 g=2 moles
Step 2: Calculate the total mass of the solution.
The solution is made by dissolving the compound in water, so:
Total mass = mass of compound + mass of water
Total mass = 120 g + 1000 g = 1120 g
Step 3: Calculate the volume of the solution using the density.
Density = mass / volume, so volume = mass / density
Density is given as 1.12 g/mL, and total mass is 1120 g.
Volume in mL = 1.12 g/mL1120 g
To simplify, divide 1120 by 1.12:
1.121120=1.12×1001120×100=112112000
Now, divide 112000 by 112:
112000÷112=1000
So, volume = 1000 mL.
Step 4: Convert the volume from milliliters to liters.
Since 1 L = 1000 mL, volume in liters = 10001000 mL=1 L
Step 5: Calculate the molarity.
Molarity = moles of solute / volume of solution in liters
Molarity = 1 L2 moles=2 M
Therefore, the molarity of the solution is 2.00 M.
Comparing with the options:
A. 2.50 M
B. 1.00 M
C. 2.00 M
D. 4.00 M
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 32ChemistrySection A • MCQsome basic concepts of chemistry
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The amount of oxygen in 3.6 moles of water is:
A
57.6 g
B
115.2 g
C
18.4 g
D
28.8 g
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The molecular formula of water is H₂O. This means that one molecule of water contains two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom.
To find the amount of oxygen in 3.6 moles of water, we first need to determine the molar mass of water. The atomic mass of hydrogen (H) is 1 g/mol, and since there are two hydrogen atoms in water, the mass contribution from hydrogen is 2×1=2 g/mol. The atomic mass of oxygen (O) is 16 g/mol, and since there is one oxygen atom in water, its mass contribution is 16 g/mol. Therefore, the molar mass of water (H₂O) is 2+16=18 g/mol.
In one mole of water, there is one mole of oxygen atoms because each water molecule has one oxygen atom. The mass of oxygen in one mole of water is equal to the mass contributed by the oxygen atom, which is 16 grams.
For 3.6 moles of water, the mass of oxygen can be found by multiplying the number of moles of water by the mass of oxygen per mole of water. So, we calculate: 3.6×16.
Let us break down the multiplication: 3.6×16 can be computed as follows. First, 3×16=48. Then, 0.6×16=9.6. Adding these together gives 48+9.6=57.6 grams.
Alternatively, we can think of 3.6 as 1036, so 3.6×16=1036×16=1036×16. Now, 36×16=576, and dividing by 10 gives 10576=57.6 grams.
Therefore, the amount of oxygen in 3.6 moles of water is 57.6 grams.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 33ChemistrySection A • MCQatomic structure
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The energy of an electron in first Bohr's orbit of H atom is −13.6 eV. The energy value of electron in the first excited state of Li2+ is:
A
27.2 eV
B
−30.6 eV
C
30.6 eV
D
−27.2 eV
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The energy of an electron in a hydrogen-like atom is given by the formula:
En=−n213.6Z2 eV
where En is the energy in electron volts (eV), Z is the atomic number, and n is the principal quantum number.
For the hydrogen atom (H), the given energy in the first Bohr's orbit (where n=1) is -13.6 eV. Since hydrogen has Z=1, this matches the formula: E1=−1213.6×12=−13.6 eV.
Now, we need to find the energy for the Li²⁺ ion. Lithium (Li) has an atomic number Z=3. The Li²⁺ ion has lost two electrons, leaving only one electron, so it is a hydrogen-like system. Therefore, we can use the same energy formula.
The question asks for the energy in the first excited state. The first excited state corresponds to the second orbit, so n=2.
Substituting Z=3 and n=2 into the formula:
E2=−(2)213.6×(3)2
First, calculate (3)2:
(3)2=3×3=9
Next, calculate (2)2:
(2)2=2×2=4
Now substitute these values:
E2=−413.6×9
Multiply 13.6 by 9:
13.6×9=122.4
Now divide by 4:
4122.4=30.6
So the expression becomes:
E2=−30.6 eV
Therefore, the energy value of the electron in the first excited state of Li²⁺ is -30.6 eV.
Comparing with the options:
A. 27.2 eV
B. -30.6 eV
C. 30.6 eV
D. -27.2 eV
The value -30.6 eV corresponds to option B.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 34ChemistrySection A • MCQp block elements
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In the following sets of reactants which two sets best exhibit the amphoteric character of Al2O3 · xH2O? Set I: Al2O3 · xH2O(s) + OH(aq)− Set II: Al2O3x · H2O(s) + H2O(l) Set III: Al2O3x · H2O(s) + H(aq)+ Set IV: Al2O3 · xH2O(s) + NH3(aq)
A
2 and 4
B
1 and 2
C
1 and 3
D
3 and 4
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Amphoteric substances can react with both acids and bases. Aluminum oxide hydrate, written as Al2O3·xH2O, is essentially aluminum hydroxide, Al(OH)3, which is amphoteric. To exhibit amphoteric character, it must react with an acid (like H+) to show basic behavior and with a base (like OH-) to show acidic behavior.
Let's analyze each set:
Set I: Al2O3·xH2O(s) + OH-(aq)
Here, OH- is a strong base. Aluminum hydroxide acts as an acid and reacts with OH- to form the aluminate ion. The reaction is:
Al(OH)3+OH−→[Al(OH)4]−
This demonstrates the acidic behavior (reaction with a base) of the amphoteric substance.
Set II: Al2O3·xH2O(s) + H2O(l)
Water is neutral. Aluminum hydroxide is insoluble and does not react significantly with water. This does not demonstrate amphoteric behavior because amphoterism requires reaction with an acid or a base, not a neutral substance.
Set III: Al2O3·xH2O(s) + H+(aq)
Here, H+ is an acid. Aluminum hydroxide acts as a base and reacts with H+ to form aluminum ions and water. The reaction is:
Al(OH)3+3H+→Al3++3H2O
This demonstrates the basic behavior (reaction with an acid) of the amphoteric substance.
Set IV: Al2O3·xH2O(s) + NH3(aq)
Ammonia (NH3) is a weak base. Aluminum hydroxide does not dissolve in ammonia because ammonia is not strong enough to form the soluble aluminate complex. The reaction only occurs with strong bases like OH-. Hence, no significant reaction occurs, and this set does not exhibit amphoteric behavior.
Sets I and III demonstrate the amphoteric character: Set I shows reaction with a base (acidic behavior), and Set III shows reaction with an acid (basic behavior). Sets II and IV do not show amphoteric behavior.
The options are:
A. Sets 2 and 4
B. Sets 1 and 2
C. Sets 1 and 3
D. Sets 3 and 4
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 35ChemistrySection A • MCQchemical bonding and molecular structure
+4 / -1
The number and type of bonds in C22− ion in CaC2 are:
A
Two σ-bonds and two π-bonds
B
One σ-bond and two π-bonds
C
One σ-bond and one π-bond
D
Two σ-bonds and one π-bond
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The question is about finding the number and type of bonds in the C22- ion present in calcium carbide (CaC2). Calcium carbide is an ionic compound made up of Ca2+ ions and C22- ions. We will focus on the C22- ion.
First, we determine the total number of valence electrons in C22-. Each carbon atom has 4 valence electrons, so two carbon atoms contribute 8 electrons. The ion has a charge of -2, meaning it has gained 2 extra electrons. Therefore, the total valence electrons are 8 + 2 = 10 electrons.
Next, we draw the Lewis structure for C22-. To satisfy the octet rule for both carbon atoms, we need each carbon to be surrounded by 8 electrons. A triple bond between the two carbon atoms uses 6 electrons (3 pairs). The remaining 4 electrons are placed as lone pairs, with two electrons (one lone pair) on each carbon atom. So, the Lewis structure is [:C≡C:]2-. In this structure, each carbon atom has a triple bond (equivalent to 6 electrons) and one lone pair (2 electrons), completing the octet.
A triple bond consists of one sigma (σ) bond and two pi (π) bonds. The sigma bond is formed by the head-on overlap of orbitals along the internuclear axis, and the two pi bonds are formed by the sidewise overlap of orbitals perpendicular to the axis. Therefore, in the C22- ion, there is one σ-bond and two π-bonds.
We can confirm this using molecular orbital theory. For the C22- ion with 10 electrons, the molecular orbital configuration is: (σ1s2)(σ*1s2)(σ2s2)(σ*2s2)(π2px2)(π2py2)(σ2pz2). The core orbitals (σ1s and σ*1s) are ignored as they are filled. The bonding orbitals are σ2s, π2px, π2py, and σ2pz, while σ*2s is antibonding.
Calculating the bond order: Bond order = (number of electrons in bonding orbitals - number of electrons in antibonding orbitals) / 2. Electrons in bonding orbitals: σ2s2 (2 electrons), π2px2 and π2py2 (4 electrons), and σ2pz2 (2 electrons) give a total of 8 bonding electrons. Electrons in antibonding orbitals: σ*2s2 (2 electrons). So, bond order = (8 - 2) / 2 = 6 / 2 = 3, indicating a triple bond.
This triple bond comprises one σ-bond (from the σ2pz orbital) and two π-bonds (from the π2px and π2py orbitals). The σ2s and σ*2s orbitals cancel each other's bond order contribution, leaving only the σ2pz and the two π bonds.
Hence, the C22- ion has one σ-bond and two π-bonds.
Now, comparing with the options:
A. Two σ-bonds and two π-bonds
B. One σ-bond and two π-bonds
C. One σ-bond and one π-bond
D. Two σ-bonds and one π-bond
So, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 36ChemistrySection A • MCQchemical bonding and molecular structure
+4 / -1
Which of the following has unpaired electron(s)?
A
O2−
B
N22+
C
O22−
D
N2
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To determine which species has unpaired electrons, we use Molecular Orbital Theory (MOT). This theory helps us understand the electron configuration in molecules and identify unpaired electrons by filling molecular orbitals according to their energy levels.
We analyze each option step by step, considering the total number of electrons and the molecular orbital energy order. For oxygen-based molecules (like O₂ and its ions), the energy order of molecular orbitals is: σ2s<σ∗2s<σ2pz<π2px=π2py<π∗2px=π∗2py<σ∗2pz. For nitrogen-based molecules (like N₂ and its ions), the energy order is: σ2s<σ∗2s<π2px=π2py<σ2pz<π∗2px=π∗2py<σ∗2pz. We focus on valence electrons, ignoring core electrons (1s orbitals), as they are filled and do not affect unpaired electrons.
Option A: O₂⁻
O₂ has 16 electrons (8 from each oxygen atom). O₂⁻ gains one extra electron, so total electrons = 17. Valence electrons: Each oxygen atom has 6 valence electrons (2s²2p⁴), so O₂ has 12 valence electrons, and O₂⁻ has 13 valence electrons. Using the energy order for oxygen-based molecules:
Fill the orbitals:
σ2s2 (2 electrons)
σ∗2s2 (2 electrons, total 4)
σ2pz2 (2 electrons, total 6)
π2px2 and π2py2 (4 electrons, total 10)
Remaining electrons: 13 - 10 = 3 electrons go to the π∗ orbitals. The π∗ orbitals are degenerate (π∗2px and π∗2py). First, place one electron in each π∗ orbital: π∗2px1 and π∗2py1 (2 electrons, total 12). The last electron goes into one of them, say π∗2px2 (total 13). So the configuration is: σ2s2σ∗2s2σ2pz2π2px2π2py2π∗2px2π∗2py1.
Here, π∗2py1 has one unpaired electron. Thus, O₂⁻ has an unpaired electron.
Option B: N₂²⁺
N₂ has 14 electrons (7 from each nitrogen atom). N₂²⁺ loses two electrons, so total electrons = 12. Valence electrons: Each nitrogen atom has 5 valence electrons (2s²2p³), so N₂ has 10 valence electrons, and N₂²⁺ has 8 valence electrons. Using the energy order for nitrogen-based molecules:
Fill the orbitals:
σ2s2 (2 electrons)
σ∗2s2 (2 electrons, total 4)
Remaining electrons: 8 - 4 = 4 electrons go to the π2p orbitals. The π2p orbitals are degenerate (π2px and π2py). Place two electrons in each: π2px2 and π2py2 (4 electrons, total 8). So the configuration is: σ2s2σ∗2s2π2px2π2py2.
All orbitals are fully filled with paired electrons. Thus, N₂²⁺ has no unpaired electrons.
Option C: O₂²⁻
O₂ has 16 electrons. O₂²⁻ gains two extra electrons, so total electrons = 18. Valence electrons: O₂ has 12 valence electrons, so O₂²⁻ has 14 valence electrons. Using the energy order for oxygen-based molecules:
Fill the orbitals:
σ2s2 (2 electrons)
σ∗2s2 (2 electrons, total 4)
σ2pz2 (2 electrons, total 6)
π2px2 and π2py2 (4 electrons, total 10)
Remaining electrons: 14 - 10 = 4 electrons go to the π∗ orbitals. Place two electrons in each π∗ orbital: π∗2px2 and π∗2py2 (4 electrons, total 14). So the configuration is: σ2s2σ∗2s2σ2pz2π2px2π2py2π∗2px2π∗2py2.
All orbitals are fully filled with paired electrons. Thus, O₂²⁻ has no unpaired electrons.
Option D: N₂
N₂ has 14 electrons. Valence electrons: 10. Using the energy order for nitrogen-based molecules:
Fill the orbitals:
σ2s2 (2 electrons)
σ∗2s2 (2 electrons, total 4)
π2px2 and π2py2 (4 electrons, total 8)
σ2pz2 (2 electrons, total 10). So the configuration is: σ2s2σ∗2s2π2px2π2py2σ2pz2.
All orbitals are fully filled with paired electrons. Thus, N₂ has no unpaired electrons.
Only O₂⁻ (Option A) has an unpaired electron. Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 37ChemistrySection A • MCQstates of matter
+4 / -1
The temperature at which oxygen molecules have the same root mean square speed as helium atoms have at 300 K is: (Atomic masses: He = 4 u, O = 16 u)
A
600 K
B
2400 K
C
1200 K
D
300 K
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The root mean square speed (vrms) of a gas is given by the formula:
vrms=M3RT
where R is the universal gas constant, T is the temperature in Kelvin, and M is the molar mass of the gas in kg/mol. However, since we are comparing two gases and R is common, we can work with molar masses in the same unit (like g/mol) because the conversion factor cancels out in ratios.
For helium atoms (He) at 300 K, the molar mass MHe = 4 g/mol (since helium is monatomic). For oxygen molecules (O2), the molar mass MO₂ = 32 g/mol (since oxygen is diatomic, 16 u × 2 = 32 u).
We need the temperature T for oxygen such that its vrms equals the vrms of helium at 300 K. So we set the two expressions equal:
MHe3R⋅300=MO₂3R⋅T
Since the square roots are equal, we can square both sides to eliminate them:
MHe3R⋅300=MO₂3R⋅T
The factor 3R appears on both sides and is non-zero, so we can cancel it:
MHe300=MO₂T
Now, solve for T by cross-multiplying:
T=300×MHeMO₂
Substitute the molar masses:
T=300×432
Simplify the fraction:
432=8
So,
T=300×8=2400
Therefore, the temperature for oxygen molecules is 2400 K.
Comparing with the options:
A. 600 K
B. 2400 K
C. 1200 K
D. 300 K
The value 2400 K corresponds to option B.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 38ChemistrySection A • MCQstates of matter
+4 / -1
Van der Waal's equation for a gas is stated as, P=V−nbnRT−a(Vn)2. This equation reduces to the perfect gas equation, P=VnRT When,
A
temperature is sufficiently high and pressure is low
B
both temperature and pressure are very low
C
both temperature and pressure are very high
D
temperature is sufficiently low and pressure is high
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The Van der Waals equation is given as:
P=V−nbnRT−a(Vn)2
We need this equation to reduce to the perfect gas equation:
P=VnRT
For this reduction to occur, the corrections introduced by the Van der Waals constants a and b must become negligible. Let's examine each term.
First, consider the volume correction term V−nbnRT. In the perfect gas equation, the volume V is assumed to be much larger than the volume occupied by the gas molecules themselves. The term nb represents the excluded volume due to the molecules. So, when V is very large compared to nb, we can approximate:
V−nb≈V
Substituting this approximation:
V−nbnRT≈VnRT
This approximation holds when the pressure is low because low pressure corresponds to a large volume (from Boyle's law, P∝V1 at constant temperature).
Second, consider the intermolecular forces term −a(Vn)2. This term accounts for the attractive forces between molecules. For this term to become negligible, its value must be very small. This happens when Vn (the concentration of gas molecules) is small, meaning the gas is dilute. A small concentration occurs when the volume V is large (low pressure) or when the temperature is high (because high kinetic energy reduces the effect of intermolecular forces).
Specifically:
a(Vn)2→0asVn→0
Thus, under low pressure (large V) and high temperature, this term approaches zero.
Combining both conditions:
Low pressure ensures V is large, making V≫nb and Vn small.
High temperature ensures that even if Vn is not extremely small, the increased kinetic energy overcomes intermolecular forces, making the a term negligible.
Therefore, substituting both approximations into the Van der Waals equation:
P≈VnRT−0=VnRT
This matches the perfect gas equation.
Now, evaluating the options:
A. Temperature is sufficiently high and pressure is low: Matches our conditions.
B. Both temperature and pressure are very low: Low pressure helps, but low temperature increases intermolecular forces, so the a term does not vanish.
C. Both temperature and pressure are very high: High temperature helps, but high pressure reduces volume (V small), so V−nb is not approximately V and Vn is large, making the a term significant.
D. Temperature is sufficiently low and pressure is high: Low temperature increases intermolecular forces, and high pressure reduces volume, worsening both corrections.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 39ChemistrySection A • MCQthermodynamics
+4 / -1
The standard enthalpy of formation of NH3 is −46.0 kJ/mol. If bond enthalpy of H2 is −436 kJ/mol and that of N2 is −712 kJ/mol, the average bond enthalpy of N−H bond in NH3 is:
A
−964 kJ/mol
B
−1102 kJ/mol
C
+1056 kJ/mol
D
+352 kJ/mol
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The standard enthalpy of formation of NH₃ is given as -46.0 kJ/mol. This corresponds to the reaction:
21N2(g)+23H2(g)→NH3(g)ΔHf=−46.0 kJ/mol
The bond enthalpies provided are for H₂ and N₂, given as -436 kJ/mol and -712 kJ/mol, respectively. These values represent the enthalpy changes when the bonds are formed from their respective atoms. Therefore, the bond formation enthalpy for H-H is -436 kJ/mol, and for N≡N is -712 kJ/mol.
To find the enthalpy change for the formation of NH₃, we need to consider the atomization of the reactants (breaking bonds) and the formation of bonds in the product. The atomization enthalpy is the reverse of bond formation, so:
Atomization enthalpy for N₂ (breaking N≡N bond) = - (bond formation enthalpy of N₂) = - (-712 kJ/mol) = +712 kJ/mol per mole of N₂
Atomization enthalpy for H₂ (breaking H-H bond) = - (bond formation enthalpy of H₂) = - (-436 kJ/mol) = +436 kJ/mol per mole of H₂
For the reaction, we have:
Atomization of 21 mole of N₂: ΔH1=21×712=356 kJ
Atomization of 23 moles of H₂: ΔH2=23×436=654 kJ
The total atomization energy is:
ΔHatomization=ΔH1+ΔH2=356+654=1010 kJ
Now, the formation of NH₃ from atoms (N and 3H) releases energy. Let the enthalpy change for forming one mole of NH₃ from its atoms be ΔH3. This involves forming three N-H bonds.
The overall enthalpy of formation is the sum of the atomization and formation steps:
ΔHf=ΔHatomization+ΔH3
Substituting the known value:
−46.0=1010+ΔH3
Solving for ΔH3:
ΔH3=−46.0−1010=−1056 kJ/mol
This enthalpy change, ΔH3=−1056 kJ/mol, corresponds to the formation of one mole of NH₃ from one nitrogen atom and three hydrogen atoms, which involves the formation of three N-H bonds.
Therefore, the enthalpy change for forming three N-H bonds is -1056 kJ/mol. The average bond formation enthalpy for one N-H bond is:
3−1056=−352 kJ/mol
The bond formation enthalpy is negative, indicating energy release. The average bond enthalpy, which is the bond dissociation energy (energy required to break the bond), is the positive value of this. Thus, the average bond enthalpy of the N-H bond is 352 kJ/mol.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 40ChemistrySection A • MCQchemical equilibrium
+4 / -1
At a certain temperature, only 50% HI is dissociated into H2 and I2 at equilibrium. The equilibrium constant is:
A
0.5
B
4.0
C
1.0
D
0.25
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The dissociation reaction of HI is given as:
2HI⇌H2+I2
However, the equilibrium constant is often reported for the formation reaction in standard notation, which is:
H2+I2⇌2HI
We are told that 50% of HI is dissociated at equilibrium. Let the initial concentration of HI be C mol/L. Since 50% is dissociated, the concentration of HI dissociated is 0.5C.
For the dissociation reaction 2HI⇌H2+I2, the stoichiometry shows that 2 moles of HI produce 1 mole of H2 and 1 mole of I2. Therefore, the concentration of H2 produced is half of the HI dissociated, and similarly for I2.
Concentration of H2 produced = 21×0.5C=0.25C
Concentration of I2 produced = 21×0.5C=0.25C
Concentration of HI remaining = initial concentration - dissociated concentration = C−0.5C=0.5C
At equilibrium:
[HI]=0.5C
[H2]=0.25C
[I2]=0.25C
For the formation reaction H2+I2⇌2HI, the equilibrium constant Kc is defined as:
Kc=[H2][I2][HI]2
Substituting the equilibrium concentrations:
Kc=(0.25C)(0.25C)(0.5C)2
First, compute the numerator:
(0.5C)2=0.25C2
Next, compute the denominator:
(0.25C)×(0.25C)=0.0625C2
Now, substitute these into the expression for Kc:
Alternatively, recognize that 0.0625=161 and 0.25=41, so:
1/161/4=41×16=4
Thus, Kc=4.0.
Hence, the equilibrium constant is 4.0, which corresponds to option B.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 41ChemistrySection A • MCQbasics of organic chemistry
+4 / -1
In which of the following pairs is A more stable than B?
A
B
C
D
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Option A: B is more stable than A because B is a tertiary (3∘) radical stabilized by more hyperconjugation, whereas A is only a secondary (2∘) radical.
Option B: B is more stable than A because the cyclopropyl radical (A) suffers from high angle strain and has greater s-character in its radical orbital, making it highly unstable compared to the standard cyclohexyl radical (B).
Option C: B is more stable than A because B is an allylic radical stabilized by resonance, whereas A is a vinylic radical where the unpaired electron sits directly on a sp2 carbon, making it exceptionally unstable.
Option D: A is more stable than B because the triphenylmethyl radical (Ph3C∙) is extensively stabilized by resonance across three aromatic rings, which vastly outperforms the simple hyperconjugation stabilizing the tert-butyl radical ((CH3)3C∙).
Q 42ChemistrySection A • MCQsolid state
+4 / -1
In a face centered cubic lattice atoms A are at the corner points and atoms B at the face centered points. If atom B is missing from one of the face centered points, the formula of the ionic compound is:
A
A2B3
B
AB2
C
A5B2
D
A2B5
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
In a face-centered cubic (FCC) lattice, atoms A are located at the corners and atoms B are at the face centers. Normally, a standard FCC unit cell has:
For corner atoms (A): There are 8 corners, and each corner atom is shared by 8 adjacent unit cells. So, the contribution of each corner atom to one unit cell is 81. Therefore, the total number of A atoms per unit cell is 8×81=1.
For face-centered atoms (B): There are 6 faces, and each face-centered atom is shared by 2 unit cells. So, the contribution of each face-centered atom to one unit cell is 21. Therefore, the total number of B atoms per unit cell in a perfect FCC lattice is 6×21=3.
However, the problem states that one atom B is missing from one of the face-centered points. This means that instead of 6 face-centered atoms, there are only 5 present (since one is missing).
Now, recalculate the contribution of B atoms per unit cell: With 5 face-centered atoms, each contributing 21 to the unit cell, the total number of B atoms per unit cell is 5×21=25.
The number of A atoms per unit cell remains unchanged: 1.
So, per unit cell, we have:
A atoms: 1
B atoms: 25
To find the simplest whole-number ratio of A to B, multiply both by 2 to eliminate the fraction:
A atoms: 1×2=2
B atoms: 25×2=5
Thus, the formula of the compound is A2B5.
Comparing with the options:
A. A2B3
B. AB2
C. A5B2
D. A2B5
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 43ChemistrySection A • MCQelectrochemistry
+4 / -1
A current of 10.0 A flows for 2.00 h through an electrolytic cell containing a molten salt of metal X. This results in the decomposition of 0.250 mol of metal X at the cathode. The oxidation state of X in the molten salt is: (F = 96,500 C)
A
1+
B
4+
C
3+
D
2+
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To find the oxidation state of metal X in the molten salt, we start by recalling Faraday's law of electrolysis. The law states that the amount of substance deposited at an electrode is proportional to the charge passed through the cell. The formula relating the moles of metal deposited (n) to the charge (Q) is:
n=z×FQ
where z is the number of electrons required to reduce one mole of metal ions (which is the oxidation state of the metal), and F is the Faraday constant (96,500 C/mol). We can rearrange this formula to solve for z:
z=n×FQ
We are given:
Current, I=10.0 A (amperes)
Time, t=2.00 h (hours)
Moles of metal deposited, n=0.250 mol
Faraday constant, F=96,500 C/mol
First, we need to calculate the total charge passed, Q. Charge is given by the product of current and time:
Q=I×t
Since time is in hours but current is in amperes (coulombs per second), we must convert time to seconds. There are 3600 seconds in one hour, so:
t=2.00×3600=7200 s
Now, substitute the values to find Q:
Q=10.0×7200=72,000 C
So, the total charge passed is 72,000 coulombs.
Next, substitute the known values into the formula for z:
z=n×FQ=0.250×96,50072,000
First, calculate the denominator:
0.250×96,500=41×96,500=24,125
So,
z=24,12572,000
Now, perform the division:
z=24,125÷12572,000÷125=193576
Dividing 576 by 193:
193×2=386
576−386=190
So, z=2+193190≈2.984.
This value is very close to 3. Considering that oxidation states are integers and the given data (current, time, moles) have three significant figures, the slight discrepancy is due to rounding. The calculated value 2.984 rounds to 3, which matches one of the options.
Therefore, the oxidation state of metal X is 3+.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 44ChemistrySection A • MCQelectrochemistry
+4 / -1
The standard electrode potentials (EM+/M∘) of four metals A, B, C and D are −1.2 V, 0.6 V, 0.85 V and −0.76 V, respectively. The sequence of deposition of metals on applying potential is:
A
B > D > C > A
B
A > C > B > D
C
C > B > D > A
D
D > A > B > C
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The standard electrode potential (EM+/M∘) indicates the tendency of a metal ion to be reduced to its metal form. A higher (more positive) reduction potential means the metal ion is more likely to gain electrons and deposit as metal during electrolysis. Therefore, the metal with the highest reduction potential deposits first, followed by the next highest, and so on.
Given the standard electrode potentials:
Metal A: E∘=−1.2V
Metal B: E∘=0.6V
Metal C: E∘=0.85V
Metal D: E∘=−0.76V
To determine the deposition sequence, we arrange these potentials in decreasing order (from highest to lowest):
Metal C has the highest potential: 0.85V
Metal B has the next highest: 0.6V
Metal D has the next: −0.76V
Metal A has the lowest: −1.2V
Thus, the order of deposition is C first, followed by B, then D, and finally A. This sequence is written as C > B > D > A.
Comparing with the options:
Option A: B > D > C > A
Option B: A > C > B > D
Option C: C > B > D > A
Option D: D > A > B > C
Option C matches the sequence C > B > D > A.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 45ChemistrySection A • MCQchemical kinetics
+4 / -1
The half-life period of a first-order reaction is 15 minutes. The amount of substance left after one hour will be:
A
161 of the original amount
B
81 of the original amount
C
321 of the original amount
D
41 of the original amount
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The half-life period of a first-order reaction is given as 15 minutes. For a first-order reaction, the half-life (t1/2) is related to the rate constant (k) by the formula:
t1/2=kln2
Substituting the given half-life:
15=kln2
Solving for k:
k=15ln2
The amount of substance left after time t for a first-order reaction is given by:
N=N0e−kt
where N0 is the original amount and N is the amount left at time t. We need to find the amount after one hour, which is 60 minutes. So, t=60 minutes.
Substitute k and t:
N=N0e−(15ln2)×60
Simplify the exponent:
15ln2×60=ln2×1560=ln2×4=4ln2
So the equation becomes:
N=N0e−4ln2
Using the property eclna=ac, we get:
e−4ln2=(eln2)−4=2−4
Therefore:
N=N0×2−4=N0×241=N0×161
Alternatively, using the half-life concept: the number of half-lives in 60 minutes is 1560=4. After each half-life, the amount halves, so after 4 half-lives, the amount is (21)4=161 of the original amount.
Hence, the amount left after one hour is 161 of the original amount. Comparing with the options, Option A corresponds to 161 of the original amount.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 46ChemistrySection A • MCQgeneral principles and processes of isolation of elements
+4 / -1
The form of iron obtained from blast furnace is:
A
Cast Iron
B
Wrought Iron
C
Steel
D
Pig Iron
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The question asks about the form of iron obtained directly from the blast furnace in the extraction process. Let us understand the process step by step.
In the extraction of iron, the blast furnace is used to reduce iron ores, such as hematite (Fe2O3), magnetite (Fe3O4), or siderite (FeCO3). The raw materials fed into the blast furnace include iron ore, coke (which acts as a reducing agent and fuel), and limestone (CaCO3, which acts as a flux to remove impurities).
Inside the blast furnace, several chemical reactions occur. First, coke burns in the preheated air to form carbon dioxide:
C+O2→CO2
This carbon dioxide then reacts with excess coke to form carbon monoxide, the primary reducing agent:
CO2+C→2CO
The carbon monoxide reduces the iron ore in stages. For hematite (Fe2O3), the reduction proceeds as follows:
Fe2O3+3CO→2Fe+3CO2
Alternatively, the reduction can occur stepwise:
3Fe2O3+CO→2Fe3O4+CO2
Fe3O4+CO→3FeO+CO2
FeO+CO→Fe+CO2
Simultaneously, limestone decomposes to quicklime (CaO) and carbon dioxide:
CaCO3→CaO+CO2
The quicklime then reacts with acidic impurities like silica (SiO2) to form slag (calcium silicate):
CaO+SiO2→CaSiO3
The molten iron produced collects at the bottom of the blast furnace. This iron is not pure; it contains about 4-5% carbon, along with other impurities such as silicon, manganese, sulfur, and phosphorus. This high-carbon iron is called pig iron.
Now, let us examine the options:
Option A: Cast Iron - This is produced by remelting pig iron and adjusting its composition. It has a lower carbon content (2-4%) than pig iron and is more refined.
Option B: Wrought Iron - This is a highly refined form of iron with very low carbon content (less than 0.1%). It is made by further processing pig iron in a puddling furnace.
Option C: Steel - This is an alloy of iron and carbon (typically 0.2-2.1% carbon), produced by reducing the carbon content of pig iron through processes like the Bessemer converter or open-hearth furnace.
Option D: Pig Iron - This is the direct product of the blast furnace, characterized by high carbon content and impurities.
Since the blast furnace yields pig iron directly, the correct answer is Option D.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 47ChemistrySection A • MCQp block elements
+4 / -1
The gas evolved on heating CaF2 and SiO2 with concentrated H2SO4, on hydrolysis gives a white gelatinous precipitate. The precipitate is:
A
Silicic acid
B
Calcium fluorosilicate
C
Hydrofluorosilicic acid
D
Silica gel
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
CaF2+H2SO4⟶CaSO4+2HF
SiO2+4HF⟶SiF4↑+2H2O
3SiF4+4H2O⟶H4SiO4+2H2SiF6
Q 48ChemistrySection A • MCQd and f block elements
+4 / -1
Which of the following is not formed when H2S reacts with acidic K2Cr2O7 solution?
A
K2SO4
B
Cr2(SO4)3
C
S
D
CrSO4
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The reaction involves hydrogen sulfide (H₂S) reacting with acidic potassium dichromate (K₂Cr₂O₇) solution. Potassium dichromate in acidic medium acts as a strong oxidizing agent, and hydrogen sulfide is a reducing agent. The typical reaction proceeds as follows.
First, the dichromate ion (Cr₂O₇²⁻) is reduced to chromium(III) ions (Cr³⁺) in acidic medium. The reduction half-reaction is:
Cr2O72−+14H++6e−→2Cr3++7H2O
Hydrogen sulfide (H₂S) is oxidized to elemental sulfur (S). The oxidation half-reaction is:
H2S→S+2H++2e−
To balance the electrons, multiply the oxidation half-reaction by 3:
3H2S→3S+6H++6e−
Now, add this to the reduction half-reaction:
Cr2O72−+14H++6e−+3H2S→2Cr3++7H2O+3S+6H++6e−
Cancel the common terms: 6e⁻ on both sides, and 6H⁺ from the right with 6H⁺ from the left (leaving 8H⁺ on the left):
Cr2O72−+8H++3H2S→2Cr3++7H2O+3S
This is the net ionic equation. To write the complete molecular equation, include the potassium ions from K₂Cr₂O₇ and the sulfate ions from the acid (H₂SO₄). The acid provides H⁺ ions, and each H₂SO₄ provides 2H⁺. Since 8H⁺ are needed, 4 molecules of H₂SO₄ are required, which also provide 4 SO₄²⁻ ions.
The potassium ions (2K⁺ from K₂Cr₂O₇) and chromium ions (2Cr³⁺) will combine with sulfate ions. The 2Cr³⁺ ions require 3 SO₄²⁻ ions to form Cr₂(SO₄)₃, and the remaining SO₄²⁻ ion (from the 4 provided) combines with 2K⁺ to form K₂SO₄.
The products are potassium sulfate (K₂SO₄), chromium(III) sulfate (Cr₂(SO₄)₃), water (H₂O), and elemental sulfur (S).
Now, examining the options:
A. K₂SO₄ is formed, as shown in the products.
B. Cr₂(SO₄)₃ is formed, as chromium is in the +3 oxidation state.
C. S (elemental sulfur) is formed from the oxidation of H₂S.
D. CrSO₄ would imply chromium(II) sulfate, where chromium is in the +2 oxidation state. However, in the reaction, chromium is reduced to +3, not +2, so CrSO₄ is not formed.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 49ChemistrySection A • MCQcoordination compounds
+4 / -1
The correct statement about the magnetic properties of [Fe(CN)6]3− and [FeF6]3− is: (Z = 26).
A
Both are paramagnetic.
B
Both are diamagnetic.
C
[Fe(CN)6]3− is paramagnetic, [FeF6]3− is diamagnetic.
D
[Fe(CN)6]3− is diamagnetic, [FeF6]3− is paramagnetic.
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To determine the magnetic properties of the complexes [Fe(CN)6]3− and [FeF6]3−, we need to analyze the number of unpaired electrons in each complex. Paramagnetic substances have unpaired electrons, while diamagnetic substances have all electrons paired. The central metal ion is iron (Fe) with atomic number Z = 26, so its electron configuration is [Ar] 4s2 3d6.
First, we find the oxidation state of iron in both complexes. For [Fe(CN)6]3−, let the oxidation state of Fe be x. Cyanide (CN−) is a ligand with charge -1, and the complex has an overall charge of -3. So, x+6×(−1)=−3, which gives x−6=−3, and solving for x, we get x=+3. Similarly, for [FeF6]3−, fluoride (F−) also has charge -1, so y+6×(−1)=−3, giving y−6=−3, and y=+3. Thus, in both complexes, iron is in the +3 oxidation state.
The electron configuration of Fe3+ is derived by removing three electrons from Fe (which has configuration [Ar] 4s2 3d6). The 4s electrons are removed first, followed by one from 3d, so Fe3+ has configuration [Ar] 3d5.
Now, we consider the ligands and their field strengths. Cyanide (CN−) is a strong field ligand, causing large splitting of the d-orbitals, leading to a low-spin complex. Fluoride (F−) is a weak field ligand, causing small splitting, leading to a high-spin complex.
For [Fe(CN)6]3− (low-spin d5 complex in octahedral field):
The d-orbitals split into t2g (lower energy, three orbitals) and eg (higher energy, two orbitals).
In low-spin complexes, electrons pair up in the t2g orbitals before occupying eg.
With five electrons, the configuration is t2g5eg0.
Three t2g orbitals hold five electrons: two orbitals have paired electrons (two pairs, four electrons), and one orbital has one unpaired electron.
Thus, there is one unpaired electron, making the complex paramagnetic.
For [FeF6]3− (high-spin d5 complex in octahedral field):
In high-spin complexes, electrons occupy all orbitals singly before pairing.
With five electrons, each d-orbital gets one electron: three in t2g and two in eg.
The configuration is t2g3eg2.
All five electrons are unpaired.
Thus, there are five unpaired electrons, making the complex paramagnetic.
Therefore, both complexes are paramagnetic.
Now, evaluating the options:
A: Both are paramagnetic. (Matches our finding)
B: Both are diamagnetic. (Incorrect, as both have unpaired electrons)
C: [Fe(CN)6]3− is paramagnetic, [FeF6]3− is diamagnetic. (Incorrect, as both are paramagnetic)
D: [Fe(CN)6]3− is diamagnetic, [FeF6]3− is paramagnetic. (Incorrect, as both are paramagnetic)
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 50ChemistrySection A • MCQcoordination compounds
+4 / -1
A compound of vanadium chloride has spin only magnetic moment of 1.73 BM. Its formula is:
A
VCl2
B
VCl5
C
VCl4
D
VCl3
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The spin only magnetic moment (μ) is given by the formula μ=n(n+2) BM, where n is the number of unpaired electrons. We are given μ=1.73 BM. So, we set up the equation:
n(n+2)=1.73
Squaring both sides to solve for n:
n(n+2)=(1.73)2
Calculating (1.73)2:
1.73×1.73=2.9929≈3.00
So,
n(n+2)=3
Rearranging into a quadratic equation:
n2+2n−3=0
Factoring the quadratic equation:
We need two numbers that multiply to −3 and add to 2. These are 3 and −1. So,
(n+3)(n−1)=0
Thus, n=−3 or n=1. Since the number of unpaired electrons cannot be negative, n=1. Therefore, the vanadium ion in the compound has one unpaired electron.
Next, we determine the oxidation state of vanadium in each compound and find the number of unpaired electrons. Vanadium (atomic number 23) has the electron configuration [Ar]4s23d3. When forming ions, electrons are removed first from the 4s orbital and then from the 3d orbital.
For VCl2: Oxidation state of vanadium is +2 (since x+2(−1)=0→x=+2). The ion is V2+, with configuration [Ar]3d3. In a free ion, the three electrons in the d orbitals occupy separate orbitals with parallel spins (Hund's rule), so there are three unpaired electrons (n=3).
For VCl5: Oxidation state of vanadium is +5 (since x+5(−1)=0→x=+5). The ion is V5+, with configuration [Ar]3d0. There are no unpaired electrons (n=0).
For VCl4: Oxidation state of vanadium is +4 (since x+4(−1)=0→x=+4). The ion is V4+, with configuration [Ar]3d1. There is one unpaired electron (n=1).
For VCl3: Oxidation state of vanadium is +3 (since x+3(−1)=0→x=+3). The ion is V3+, with configuration [Ar]3d2. In a free ion, the two electrons occupy separate orbitals with parallel spins, so there are two unpaired electrons (n=2).
Only VCl4 (vanadium in +4 oxidation state) has one unpaired electron, matching the given magnetic moment of 1.73 BM.
Verifying the magnetic moments:
VCl2: μ=3(3+2)=15≈3.87 BM (not 1.73 BM).
VCl5: μ=0(0+2)=0 BM (not 1.73 BM).
VCl4: μ=1(1+2)=3≈1.73 BM (matches).
VCl3: μ=2(2+2)=8≈2.83 BM (not 1.73 BM).
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 51ChemistrySection A • MCQcoordination compounds
+4 / -1
An octahedral complex of Co3+ is diamagnetic. The hybridisation involved in the formation of the complex is:
A
dsp2
B
d2sp3
C
dsp3d
D
sp3d2
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
An octahedral complex of Co³⁺ is diamagnetic, meaning it has no unpaired electrons. To determine the hybridization, we start by examining the electron configuration of cobalt.
Cobalt has an atomic number of 27. The electron configuration of neutral cobalt (Co) is: 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d7. For Co³⁺, three electrons are removed. Electrons are removed first from the 4s orbital and then from the 3d orbital. Removing two electrons from 4s² gives Co²⁺: [Ar]3d7. Removing one more electron from 3d⁷ gives Co³⁺: [Ar]3d6. So, the configuration of Co³⁺ is 1s22s22p63s23p63d6.
In an octahedral complex, the d-orbitals split into a lower-energy t₂g set (dxy, dyz, dzx) and a higher-energy eg set (dx²-y², dz²). The magnetic properties depend on whether the complex is high-spin or low-spin.
A diamagnetic complex has all electrons paired. For Co³⁺ (d⁶), we consider two cases:
1. High-spin complex: The pairing energy is greater than the crystal field splitting energy (Δₒ). Electrons occupy orbitals singly before pairing. For d⁶, the configuration is t₂g⁴ eg². This has four unpaired electrons (two in t₂g and two in eg), making it paramagnetic.
2. Low-spin complex: The crystal field splitting energy (Δₒ) is greater than the pairing energy. Electrons pair in the t₂g orbitals before occupying eg. For d⁶, all six electrons occupy the t₂g orbitals: t₂g⁶ eg⁰. Since t₂g has three orbitals, each holds two electrons: ↑↓, ↑↓, ↑↓. This results in zero unpaired electrons, making it diamagnetic.
Given that the complex is diamagnetic, it must be low-spin. Therefore, the eg orbitals (dx²-y² and dz²) are empty.
In octahedral complexes, hybridization involves two d orbitals, one s orbital, and three p orbitals. The type of hybridization depends on whether the inner (n-1)d or outer nd orbitals are used:
- Inner orbital hybridization (d²sp³) uses two inner d orbitals from the (n-1)d set.
- Outer orbital hybridization (sp³d²) uses two outer d orbitals from the nd set.
For Co³⁺ (in the fourth period), n=4. The inner d orbitals are 3d. In the low-spin complex, the eg orbitals (dx²-y² and dz²) are empty and available for hybridization. Thus, the hybridization uses these two 3d orbitals (from the (n-1)d set), the 4s orbital, and the three 4p orbitals, forming d²sp³ hybridization.
Now, evaluating the options:
A. dsp²: This is for square planar geometry, not octahedral.
B. d²sp³: This matches inner orbital hybridization for octahedral complexes.
C. dsp³d: This notation is non-standard and typically implies a mix of inner and outer d orbitals, which is not applicable here.
D. sp³d²: This is outer orbital hybridization, used in high-spin octahedral complexes where inner d orbitals are occupied.
Since the complex is diamagnetic (low-spin), inner orbital hybridization (d²sp³) is involved.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 52ChemistrySection A • MCQalcohols phenols and ethers
+4 / -1
Allyl phenyl ether can be prepared by heating:
A
CH2 = CH - Br + C6H5 - CH2 - ONa
B
C6H5 - CH = CH - Br + CH3 - ONa
C
CH2 = CH - CH2 - Br + C6H5ONa
D
C6H5Br + CH2 = CH - CH2 - ONa
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To prepare allyl phenyl ether, which has the structure CH2=CH-CH2-O-C6H5, we use the Williamson ether synthesis. This method involves the reaction of an alkoxide ion with an alkyl halide to form an ether. The general reaction is R-ONa + R'-X → R-O-R' + NaX, where R and R' are alkyl or aryl groups.
In this case, allyl phenyl ether has two parts: the allyl group (CH2=CH-CH2-) and the phenyl group (C6H5-). We need to choose the correct combination of reactants from the options.
Let's evaluate each option:
Option A: CH2=CH-Br + C6H5-CH2-ONa
Here, CH2=CH-Br is vinyl bromide. Vinyl halides are unreactive in nucleophilic substitution reactions because the carbon is sp2 hybridized, and the C-Br bond has partial double bond character due to resonance. This makes it difficult for nucleophiles to attack. The product would be CH2=CH-O-CH2-C6H5 (vinyl benzyl ether), not allyl phenyl ether. So, this option is incorrect.
Option B: C6H5-CH=CH-Br + CH3-ONa
Here, C6H5-CH=CH-Br is styryl bromide (a vinyl halide). Vinyl halides are unreactive for the same reasons as in option A. The product would be C6H5-CH=CH-O-CH3 (styryl methyl ether), not allyl phenyl ether. So, this option is incorrect.
Option C: CH2=CH-CH2-Br + C6H5ONa
Here, CH2=CH-CH2-Br is allyl bromide, and C6H5ONa is sodium phenoxide. Allyl bromide is a primary alkyl halide but is highly reactive due to resonance stabilization of the intermediate carbocation in SN1 or the transition state in SN2 reactions. Sodium phenoxide is a strong nucleophile. The reaction proceeds as:
CH2=CH-CH2-Br + C6H5ONa → CH2=CH-CH2-O-C6H5 + NaBr
The product is allyl phenyl ether (CH2=CH-CH2-O-C6H5). This reaction is feasible under heating conditions.
Option D: C6H5Br + CH2=CH-CH2-ONa
Here, C6H5Br is bromobenzene (an aryl halide), and CH2=CH-CH2-ONa is sodium allyloxide. Aryl halides like bromobenzene do not undergo nucleophilic substitution easily under normal heating conditions because the carbon is sp2 hybridized, and the C-Br bond is strong due to resonance. Special conditions (e.g., high temperature and pressure) are required for substitution. The product would be C6H5-O-CH2-CH=CH2 (allyl phenyl ether), but the reaction does not occur readily. So, this option is incorrect.
Therefore, only option C provides a feasible route to synthesize allyl phenyl ether via Williamson ether synthesis.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 53ChemistrySection A • MCQhaloalkanes and haloarenes
+4 / -1
For the compounds CH3Cl, CH3Br, CH3I and CH3F, the correct order of increasing C-halogen bond length is:
A
CH3F < CH3Br < CH3Cl < CH3I
B
CH3F < CH3I < CH3Br < CH3Cl
C
CH3F < CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3I
D
CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3F < CH3I
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To determine the correct order of increasing carbon-halogen bond length in the compounds CH3F, CH3Cl, CH3Br, and CH3I, we need to understand how bond length relates to the halogen atoms. Bond length is the distance between the nuclei of two bonded atoms. Since the carbon atom is the same in all these compounds, the bond length depends primarily on the size of the halogen atom bonded to it.
Halogens belong to Group 17 of the periodic table. As we move down the group, the atomic size increases due to the addition of electron shells. The atomic radii increase in the order: fluorine (F) < chlorine (Cl) < bromine (Br) < iodine (I). Therefore, the covalent radius of fluorine is the smallest, and iodine is the largest.
In a covalent bond, the bond length is approximately the sum of the covalent radii of the bonded atoms. Since carbon has a fixed covalent radius, the carbon-halogen bond length will increase as the covalent radius of the halogen increases. Thus, the C-F bond will be the shortest, and the C-I bond will be the longest.
Let us list the bonds:
CH3F has a C-F bond
CH3Cl has a C-Cl bond
CH3Br has a C-Br bond
CH3I has a C-I bond
Based on the halogen sizes, the bond lengths should follow the order: C-F < C-Cl < C-Br < C-I. Therefore, the compounds should be ordered as: CH3F < CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3I.
Now, comparing with the given options:
Option A: CH3F < CH3Br < CH3Cl < CH3I — This is incorrect because C-Br bond length is greater than C-Cl, so CH3Br should come after CH3Cl.
Option B: CH3F < CH3I < CH3Br < CH3Cl — This is incorrect because C-I bond is longer than C-Br, so CH3I should be last, not second.
Option D: CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3F < CH3I — This is incorrect because CH3F has the shortest bond and should be first, not third.
This order is also supported by the trend in bond strength. The C-F bond is the strongest due to better orbital overlap with the small fluorine atom, and bond strength decreases down the group (C-F > C-Cl > C-Br > C-I). Stronger bonds are shorter, confirming the bond length order.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 54ChemistrySection A • MCQhaloalkanes and haloarenes
+4 / -1
In a nucleophilic substitution reaction: R − Br + Cl−DMF R − Cl + Br−, which one of the following undergoes complete inversion of configuration?
A
C6H5CHC6H5Br
B
C6H5CCH3C6H5Br
C
C6H5CH2Br
D
C6H5CH2CH2Br
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The reaction given is a nucleophilic substitution: R-Br + Cl⁻ → R-Cl + Br⁻ in DMF solvent. DMF is a polar aprotic solvent, which favors the SN2 mechanism. In SN2 reactions, the nucleophile attacks from the back side, leading to complete inversion of configuration at the chiral carbon center. For inversion to occur, the carbon attached to the leaving group (Br) must be chiral and the reaction must proceed via SN2.
Now, let's analyze each option to determine which compound has a chiral carbon that undergoes SN2 and hence complete inversion.
Option A: C₆H₅CHC₆H₅Br, which is (C₆H₅)₂CHBr. The carbon bonded to Br is attached to two phenyl groups (C₆H₅), one hydrogen (H), and bromine (Br). Since the two phenyl groups are identical, this carbon is not chiral (it has two identical substituents). The compound is benzylic and secondary, so it undergoes SN1 in DMF due to resonance stabilization of the carbocation, leading to racemization, not inversion.
Option B: C₆H₅CCH₃C₆H₅Br, which is (C₆H₅)₂CBrCH₃. The carbon bonded to Br is attached to two phenyl groups (C₆H₅), one methyl group (CH₃), and bromine (Br). Again, the two phenyl groups are identical, so this carbon is not chiral. The compound is tertiary and undergoes SN1, leading to racemization.
Option C: C₆H₅CH₂Br, which is benzyl bromide. The carbon bonded to Br is CH₂Br, attached to two hydrogens (H), one benzyl group (C₆H₅CH₂-), and bromine (Br). With two identical H atoms, it is not chiral. Though primary and benzylic, it can undergo both SN1 (due to resonance) and SN2 in DMF. However, SN1 may occur, preventing complete inversion.
Option D: C₆H₅CH₂CH₂Br, which is 2-bromoethylbenzene. The carbon bonded to Br is CH₂Br, attached to two hydrogens (H), one ethyl group (C₆H₅CH₂CH₂-), and bromine (Br). Like option C, it has two identical H atoms, so it is not chiral. However, this carbon is primary and not benzylic (the phenyl group is attached to the adjacent carbon). In DMF, it undergoes pure SN2 without competing SN1, as the carbocation would not be stabilized. If this carbon were chiral (e.g., if one H were different), it would undergo complete inversion via SN2. Among the options, it is the only one that exclusively follows SN2, making it the correct choice for complete inversion if chirality were present.
Although none of the compounds have a chiral carbon, option D is selected because it undergoes a clean SN2 mechanism, which is necessary for complete inversion. The other options either lack chirality or undergo SN1, which does not guarantee inversion.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 55ChemistrySection A • MCQhydrocarbons
+4 / -1
In the hydroboration-oxidation reaction of propene with diborane, H2O2 and NaOH, the organic compound formed is:
A
CH3 CH2 CH2 OH
B
CH3 CH2 OH
C
CH3 CHOHCH3
D
(CH3)3 COH
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The hydroboration-oxidation reaction of propene involves two main steps: hydroboration with diborane (B2H6) followed by oxidation with hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) and sodium hydroxide (NaOH). Propene has the structure CH3CH=CH2, which is an unsymmetrical alkene. The double bond is between the second carbon (CH group) and the third carbon (CH2 group), with the third carbon being less substituted.
In the hydroboration step, diborane dissociates into BH3, which acts as an electrophile. Boron attaches to the less substituted carbon (the terminal CH2 group) due to its higher electron density, while hydrogen attaches to the more substituted carbon (the CH group). This addition follows anti-Markovnikov orientation. The reaction proceeds as follows:
CH3CH=CH2 + BH3 → CH3CH2CH2BH2
However, diborane typically forms trialkylboranes. With excess propene, the reaction yields tripropylborane:
3 CH3CH=CH2 + (1/2) B2H6 → (CH3CH2CH2)3B
In the oxidation step, the alkylborane is treated with H2O2 and NaOH. This replaces the boron group with a hydroxyl group (OH), attaching it to the same carbon that was bonded to boron. The reaction for the trialkylborane is:
The organic product is propan-1-ol, CH3CH2CH2OH, where the OH group is attached to the terminal carbon.
Now, comparing with the options:
A. CH3CH2CH2OH (propan-1-ol)
B. CH3CH2OH (ethanol)
C. CH3CHOHCH3 (propan-2-ol)
D. (CH3)3COH (tert-butanol)
The product matches option A. This is consistent with anti-Markovnikov addition, where the OH group attaches to the less substituted carbon.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 56ChemistrySection A • MCQaldehydes ketones and carboxylic acids
+4 / -1
Which is the major product formed when acetone is heated with iodine and potassium hydroxide?
A
Acetophenone
B
Iodoform
C
Iodoacetone
D
Acetic acid
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
When acetone, which has the chemical formula (CH3)2C=O, is heated with iodine (I2) and potassium hydroxide (KOH), it undergoes a specific reaction known as the iodoform reaction. This reaction is characteristic of methyl ketones (compounds with the structure R−CO−CH3) and certain alcohols that can be oxidized to methyl ketones.
Acetone is a methyl ketone because it has two methyl groups attached to the carbonyl carbon. The reaction proceeds through several steps involving base-catalyzed halogenation followed by cleavage.
First, the base OH− from KOH deprotonates one of the alpha hydrogens of acetone. The alpha carbon is the carbon adjacent to the carbonyl group, and acetone has three equivalent alpha hydrogens in each methyl group. This forms an enolate ion:
CH3COCH3+OH−→CH3COCH2−+H2O
The enolate ion then acts as a nucleophile and attacks an iodine molecule (I2), substituting one iodine atom and forming monoiodoacetone:
CH3COCH2−+I2→CH3COCH2I+I−
This monoiodoacetone still has two alpha hydrogens. The presence of the iodine atom makes these hydrogens more acidic due to its electron-withdrawing effect. Thus, the base can deprotonate another alpha hydrogen, forming a new enolate:
CH3COCH2I+OH−→CH3COCHI−+H2O
This enolate attacks another iodine molecule, leading to diiodoacetone:
CH3COCHI−+I2→CH3COCHI2+I−
Diiodoacetone has one remaining alpha hydrogen, which is even more acidic. Deprotonation occurs again:
CH3COCHI2+OH−→CH3COCI2−+H2O
The resulting enolate attacks a third iodine molecule, forming triiodoacetone:
CH3COCI2−+I2→CH3COCI3+I−
Triiodoacetone (CH3COCI3) is unstable under basic conditions. The hydroxide ion attacks the carbonyl carbon, forming a tetrahedral intermediate:
CH3COCI3+OH−→(CH3)C(OH)CI3
This intermediate undergoes cleavage because the triiodomethyl group (−CI3) is a good leaving group. The −CI3 group is expelled as a carbanion (CI3−), which rapidly decomposes to iodoform (CHI3) and an iodide ion (I−):
(CH3)C(OH)CI3→CH3COO−+CHI3
The acetate ion (CH3COO−) combines with potassium ions to form potassium acetate, but the major organic product of interest is iodoform (CHI3), which appears as a yellow precipitate.
Now, evaluating the options:
A. Acetophenone (C6H5COCH3) is not formed, as it requires a phenyl group.
B. Iodoform (CHI3) is the yellow precipitate formed.
C. Iodoacetone (e.g., CH3COCH2I) is an intermediate but not the final product.
D. Acetic acid (CH3COOH) might be derived from the acetate after acidification, but under the given reaction conditions, iodoform is the major product observed.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 57ChemistrySection A • MCQbasics of organic chemistry
+4 / -1
Which one of the following reactions will not result in the formation of carbon-carbon bond?
A
Friedel Craft's acylation
B
Reimer-Tieman reaction
C
Cannizaro reaction
D
Wurtz reaction
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To determine which reaction does not result in the formation of a carbon-carbon bond, we need to analyze each option step by step. Let's recall the key features of each reaction.
Starting with option A: Friedel Craft's acylation. This reaction involves an aromatic compound reacting with an acyl chloride (R-COCl) in the presence of a Lewis acid catalyst like AlCl₃. The acyl group attaches to the aromatic ring, forming a new bond between the carbonyl carbon of the acyl group and a carbon atom of the aromatic ring. For example, benzene reacts with acetyl chloride to form acetophenone: C6H6+CH3COClAlCl3C6H5COCH3 Here, a new carbon-carbon bond is formed between the benzene ring carbon and the carbonyl carbon of the acetyl group. Thus, this reaction does form a carbon-carbon bond.
Next, option B: Reimer-Tieman reaction. This reaction is used for ortho-formylation of phenols. Phenol reacts with chloroform (CHCl₃) in the presence of a strong base like NaOH to produce salicylaldehyde (2-hydroxybenzaldehyde). The mechanism involves the formation of dichlorocarbene (:CCl₂), which attacks the ortho position of the phenoxide ion. This results in a new bond between the carbon of the benzene ring and the carbon of the formyl group. The reaction is: C6H5OH+CHCl3+NaOH−>o−HOC6H4CHO A carbon-carbon bond is formed between the aromatic carbon and the carbon of the -CHO group. Therefore, this reaction also forms a carbon-carbon bond.
Now, option C: Cannizaro reaction. This is a disproportionation reaction that occurs with aldehydes lacking an alpha hydrogen, such as formaldehyde or benzaldehyde. In this reaction, one molecule of aldehyde is oxidized to a carboxylic acid, while another molecule is reduced to an alcohol. For example, formaldehyde undergoes the Cannizaro reaction: 2HCHO−>[NaOH] HCOONa + CH3OH The mechanism involves a hydride ion transfer from one aldehyde molecule to another. There is no formation of a new carbon-carbon bond; instead, bonds are rearranged to form C-O bonds in the carboxylate and alcohol. The carbon atoms remain separate—no coupling occurs. Hence, this reaction does not form a carbon-carbon bond.
Finally, option D: Wurtz reaction. This reaction couples two alkyl halides using sodium metal in dry ether solvent. For instance, two molecules of bromoethane react to form butane: 2CH3CH2Br+2Na−>CH3CH2CH2CH3+2NaBr Here, the alkyl groups from the halides combine, forming a new carbon-carbon bond between the two carbon atoms. Thus, this reaction clearly forms a carbon-carbon bond.
In summary:
Friedel Craft's acylation (A) forms a carbon-carbon bond.
Reimer-Tieman reaction (B) forms a carbon-carbon bond.
Cannizaro reaction (C) does not form a carbon-carbon bond.
Wurtz reaction (D) forms a carbon-carbon bond.
The Cannizaro reaction is the only one that does not result in the formation of a carbon-carbon bond.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 58ChemistrySection A • MCQhydrocarbons
+4 / -1
The major product of the reaction is:
A
B
C
D
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Q 59ChemistrySection A • MCQpolymers
+4 / -1
Structure of some important polymers are given. Which one represents Buna-S?
A
B
C
D
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Structure of Buna-S (formed by buta-1,3-diene and styrene) polymer is:
Q 60ChemistrySection A • MCQhydrocarbons
+4 / -1
Which one of the following class of compounds is obtained by polymerization of acetylene?
A
Poly-ene
B
Poly-amide
C
Poly-yne
D
Poly-ester
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
n(HC≡CH)⟶[CH=CH]n
Q 61MathematicsSection A • MCQquadratic equations
+4 / -1
If α1, β1 are the roots of the equation ax2+bx+1=0, (a=0,a,b∈R), then the equation x(x+b3)+(a3−3abx)=0 has roots:
A
αβ and αβ
B
α−23 and β−23
C
αβ21 and α21β
D
α23 and β23
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Given that α1 and β1 are the roots of the equation ax2+bx+1=0, where a=0 and a,b are real numbers. For a quadratic equation px2+qx+r=0, the sum of roots is −pq and the product is pr. Applying this to the given equation:
Sum of roots: α1+β1=−ab
Product of roots: α1⋅β1=αβ1=a1
From the product, αβ1=a1, so αβ=a. Squaring both sides, αβ=a2. ...(i)
From the sum, α1+β1=αββ+α. Substituting αβ=a, we get aα+β=−ab. Multiplying both sides by a, α+β=−b. ...(ii)
Since α and β are positive (as roots involve square roots), α>0 and β>0, so their sum is positive. Thus, −b>0, implying b<0. Set p=α and q=β, so p>0, q>0. Then:
From (i): p2q2=a2, so (pq)2=a2. Since a>0 (because the product of roots a1>0), pq=a. ...(iii)
From (ii): p+q=−b. ...(iv)
Now, consider the equation x(x+b3)+(a3−3abx)=0. Expanding:
Note that p3+q3=(p+q)(p2−pq+q2)=(p+q)[(p+q)2−3pq], which matches the sum. Also, p3q3=(pq)3=a3, which matches the product. Therefore, the roots are p3 and q3.
Since p=α, p3=(α)3=α23. Similarly, q3=β23.
Now, check the options:
A. αβ and αβ: These are a and a2, but roots are α23 and β23, not matching.
B. α−23 and β−23: These are reciprocals, not matching.
C. αβ21 and α21β: These are αβ and αβ, which are p2q and pq2. Sum is p2q+pq2=pq(p+q)=a(−b), but required sum is p3+q3, not equal in general.
D. α23 and β23: These are p3 and q3, matching the roots.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 62MathematicsSection A • MCQquadratic equations
+4 / -1
If equations ax2+bx+c=0, (a,b,c∈R,a=0) and 2x2+3x+4=0 have a common root, then a:b:c equals:
A
2 : 3 : 4
B
4 : 3 : 2
C
1 : 2 : 3
D
3 : 2 : 1
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The given equations are ax2+bx+c=0 (with a,b,c real numbers and a=0) and 2x2+3x+4=0. They share a common root. To find the ratio a:b:c, we start by examining the second equation.
The quadratic equation 2x2+3x+4=0 has a discriminant D=b2−4ac=32−4⋅2⋅4=9−32=−23, which is negative. Therefore, the roots are complex conjugates: x=4−3±−23=4−3±i23.
Since the coefficients of both equations are real, if one complex root is common, its conjugate must also be a root of the first equation. A quadratic equation has at most two roots, so both roots must be common to both equations. This implies that the equations are proportional, meaning there exists a non-zero constant k such that:
a=2k,b=3k,c=4k
Thus, the ratio a:b:c=2k:3k:4k=2:3:4.
Now, comparing with the options:
A. 2:3:4
B. 4:3:2
C. 1:2:3
D. 3:2:1
The ratio 2:3:4 matches option A.
To verify, we can check if other options satisfy the condition of having a common root. Suppose we try option B: a=4k, b=3k, c=2k. The first equation becomes 4kx2+3kx+2k=0, which simplifies to 4x2+3x+2=0 (since k=0). The discriminant is 32−4⋅4⋅2=9−32=−23, so roots are 8−3±i23, which differ from the roots of 2x2+3x+4=0 (4−3±i23). Thus, no common root.
For option C: a=k, b=2k, c=3k, the equation is kx2+2kx+3k=0 or x2+2x+3=0. Discriminant is 4−12=−8, roots 2−2±i8=−1±i2, not matching.
For option D: a=3k, b=2k, c=k, the equation is 3kx2+2kx+k=0 or 3x2+2x+1=0. Discriminant is 4−12=−8, roots 6−2±i8=3−1±i2, not matching.
Only option A gives proportional equations with identical roots, ensuring a common root (in fact, both roots are common).
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 63MathematicsSection A • MCQcomplex numbers
+4 / -1
Let w(Imw=0) be a complex number. Then, the set of all complex numbers z satisfying the equation w−wˉz=k(1−z), for some real number k, is:
A
{z:z=1}
B
{z:∣z∣=1,z=1}
C
{z:z=zˉ}
D
{z:∣z∣=1}
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given a complex number w with non-zero imaginary part, meaning Im(w)=0, and we need to find the set of all complex numbers z such that the equation w−wˉz=k(1−z) holds for some real number k.
First, rearrange the equation to solve for z. Starting with:
w−wˉz=k(1−z)
Expand the right side:
w−wˉz=k−kz
Bring all terms to the left side:
w−wˉz−k+kz=0
Group terms containing z:
w−k+z(k−wˉ)=0
Isolate the term with z:
z(k−wˉ)=k−w
Solve for z:
z=k−wˉk−w
Note that k is real, so kˉ=k. The denominator k−wˉ must not be zero. Since Im(w)=0, w is not real, and thus wˉ is also not real. Therefore, for any real k, k−wˉ=0 and similarly k−w=0, ensuring z is defined.
To find the set of z, consider the conjugate of z. Given:
z=k−wˉk−w
Take the conjugate:
zˉ=(k−wˉk−w)=k−wˉk−w=kˉ−wˉkˉ−wˉ=k−wk−wˉ
Now, multiply z and zˉ:
zzˉ=(k−wˉk−w)(k−wk−wˉ)=1
Since zzˉ=∣z∣2, we have:
∣z∣2=1
Thus, ∣z∣=1 (as magnitude is non-negative).
Now, check if z=1 is possible. Substitute z=1 into the original equation:
w−wˉ⋅1=k(1−1)⟹w−wˉ=0⟹w=wˉ
This implies w is real, but Im(w)=0, so w is not real. Thus, z=1 is not possible and must be excluded.
So far, we have that z must satisfy ∣z∣=1 and z=1. Now, verify that every such z can be achieved with some real k. Let z be any complex number with ∣z∣=1 and z=1. Solve for k in:
z=k−wˉk−w
Rearrange:
z(k−wˉ)=k−w
zk−zwˉ=k−w
Bring terms with k to one side:
zk−k=zwˉ−w
k(z−1)=zwˉ−w
Solve for k:
k=z−1zwˉ−w
Since z=1, the denominator is non-zero. Now, show that k is real by proving k=kˉ. Compute the conjugate of k:
Thus, kˉ=k, confirming k is real. Therefore, for every z with ∣z∣=1 and z=1, there exists a real k satisfying the equation.
Now, evaluate the options:
A. {z:z=1} — This includes points not on the unit circle, but we require ∣z∣=1, so incorrect.
B. {z:∣z∣=1,z=1} — Matches our derived set.
C. {z:z=zˉ} — This is the real line, but z on the unit circle may not be real, so incorrect.
D. {z:∣z∣=1} — Includes z=1, which is excluded, so incorrect.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 64MathematicsSection A • MCQpermutations and combinations
+4 / -1
The sum of the digits in the unit's place of all the 4-digit numbers formed by using the numbers 3, 4, 5 and 6, without repetition is:
A
18
B
36
C
108
D
432
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to find the sum of the digits in the unit's place of all 4-digit numbers formed using the digits 3, 4, 5, and 6 without repetition. Since no digit repeats, each number uses all four digits exactly once.
First, the total number of such 4-digit numbers is the number of permutations of 4 distinct digits, which is 4! = 24. So, there are 24 numbers in total.
Now, we want the sum of the digits in the unit's place. For this sum, we need to determine how many times each digit (3, 4, 5, 6) appears in the unit's place across all 24 numbers.
Consider a fixed digit, say 3, in the unit's place. If the unit digit is fixed as 3, then the remaining three digits (4, 5, 6) can be arranged in the thousands, hundreds, and tens places. The number of ways to arrange these three digits is 3! = 6. Therefore, the digit 3 appears in the unit's place in 6 numbers.
Similarly, by symmetry, each digit (3, 4, 5, 6) will appear in the unit's place exactly 6 times.
Now, we calculate the contribution of each digit to the sum:
The digit 3 appears 6 times in the unit's place, contributing 3 × 6 = 18.
The digit 4 appears 6 times in the unit's place, contributing 4 × 6 = 24.
The digit 5 appears 6 times in the unit's place, contributing 5 × 6 = 30.
The digit 6 appears 6 times in the unit's place, contributing 6 × 6 = 36.
Adding these contributions together: 18 + 24 = 42, then 42 + 30 = 72, and finally 72 + 36 = 108.
Therefore, the sum of the digits in the unit's place is 108.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 65MathematicsSection A • MCQsequences and series
+4 / -1
Given an A.P. whose terms are all positive integers. The sum of its first nine terms is greater than 200 and less than 220. If the second term in it is 12, then its 4th term is:
A
8
B
24
C
20
D
16
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given an arithmetic progression (A.P.) with all positive integer terms. The second term is 12, and the sum of the first nine terms is greater than 200 and less than 220. We need to find the fourth term.
Let the first term be a and the common difference be d. Since the second term is 12, we have:
a+d=12(Equation 1)
The sum of the first nine terms of an A.P. is given by:
Since a and d are integers (as terms are positive integers), a+4d must be an integer. The only integers between 22.222 and 24.444 are 23 and 24. Therefore, we have two cases:
Case 1:a+4d=23
Case 2:a+4d=24
We also have Equation 1: a+d=12.
Solving Case 1:
Subtract Equation 1 from a+4d=23:
(a+4d)−(a+d)=23−12
a+4d−a−d=11
3d=11
d=311≈3.666
But d must be an integer since terms are integers, so this case is invalid.
Solving Case 2:
Subtract Equation 1 from a+4d=24:
(a+4d)−(a+d)=24−12
a+4d−a−d=12
3d=12
d=4
Substitute d=4 into Equation 1:
a+4=12
a=8
So the first term a=8 and common difference d=4.
The fourth term is:
T4=a+(4−1)d=8+3×4=8+12=20
Verification:
The first nine terms are: 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, 28, 32, 36, 40.
Sum: 8+12+16+20+24+28+32+36+40=216
200<216<220 is true, and all terms are positive integers.
The options are:
A. 8
B. 24
C. 20
D. 16
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 66MathematicsSection A • MCQsequences and series
+4 / -1
If the sum 123+12+225+12+22+327+… + up to 20 terms is equal to 21k, then k is equal to:
A
240
B
120
C
60
D
180
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The given series is: 123+12+225+12+22+327+… up to 20 terms, and it equals 21k. We need to find the value of k.
First, we identify the general term of the series. The numerators are 3, 5, 7, ..., which form an arithmetic sequence. The nth term of this sequence is 2n+1, since for n=1, 2(1)+1=3; for n=2, 2(2)+1=5, and so on.
The denominators are the sums of squares of the first n natural numbers. The sum of squares of the first n natural numbers is given by 6n(n+1)(2n+1). So, for the nth term, the denominator is 6n(n+1)(2n+1).
Therefore, the nth term of the series is:
tn=6n(n+1)(2n+1)2n+1
Simplifying this expression:
tn=(2n+1)×n(n+1)(2n+1)6
Since 2n+1=0 for any natural number n, it cancels out:
tn=n(n+1)6
We can decompose this fraction using partial fractions:
n(n+1)6=6(n1−n+11)
Thus, the nth term is:
tn=6(n1−n+11)
The sum S of the first 20 terms is:
S=∑n=120tn=∑n=1206(n1−n+11)
This is a telescoping series, where most terms cancel each other. Writing out the sum explicitly:
S=6[(11−21)+(21−31)+(31−41)+…+(201−211)]
Observing the terms, −21 cancels with +21, −31 cancels with +31, and so on, up to −201 canceling with +201. The only terms that remain are the first positive term 11 and the last negative term −211:
S=6(1−211)
Simplifying inside the parentheses:
1−211=2121−211=2120
So,
S=6×2120=21120
The problem states that this sum equals 21k. Therefore:
21120=21k
Since the denominators are equal, we equate the numerators:
k=120
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 67MathematicsSection A • MCQbinomial theorem
+4 / -1
The number of terms in the expansion of (1+x)101(1−x+x2)100 in powers of x is:
A
301
B
302
C
101
D
202
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given the expression (1+x)101(1−x+x2)100 and need to find the number of distinct powers of x in its expansion.
First, recognize that 1−x+x2 can be rewritten using the identity 1+x3=(1+x)(1−x+x2). Solving for 1−x+x2, we get:
1−x+x2=1+x1+x3
for x=−1. Substituting this into the original expression:
The first sum: ∑k=0100(k100)x3k has exponents 3k for k=0,1,2,…,100. This produces exponents: 0,3,6,…,300.
The second sum: ∑k=0100(k100)x3k+1 has exponents 3k+1 for k=0,1,2,…,100. This produces exponents: 1,4,7,…,301.
Now, count the number of terms in each sum:
For the first sum, exponents form an arithmetic sequence with first term 0, common difference 3, and last term 300. The number of terms is 3300−0+1=100+1=101.
For the second sum, exponents form an arithmetic sequence with first term 1, common difference 3, and last term 301. The number of terms is 3301−1+1=3300+1=100+1=101.
To find the total number of distinct powers, check if there is any overlap between the exponents of the two sums. Suppose an exponent m appears in both sums. Then:
m=3a for some integer a (from the first sum)
m=3b+1 for some integer b (from the second sum)
Equating these:
3a=3b+1⟹3a−3b=1⟹3(a−b)=1
This equation has no integer solutions because 3 times an integer cannot equal 1. Therefore, there are no common exponents between the two sums.
Since there is no overlap, the total number of distinct exponents is the sum of the terms from both sums:
101+101=202
Hence, the number of distinct powers of x is 202.
So, the answer is 202.
Q 68MathematicsSection A • MCQtrigonometric functions
+4 / -1
If cosecθ=p−qp+q (p=q,p=0), then cot(4π+2θ) is equals to:
A
pq
B
qp
C
pq
D
pq
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given that cosecθ=p−qp+q with p=q and p=0. We need to find cot(4π+2θ).
First, recall that cosecθ=sinθ1, so sinθ=p+qp−q.
Now, consider the expression cot(4π+2θ). Using the angle addition formula for cotangent, cot(A+B)=cotB+cotAcotAcotB−1, set A=4π and B=2θ. Since cot4π=1, we have:
Next, express sinθ in terms of u. We know that sinθ=2sin2θcos2θ. Since u=cot2θ=sin2θcos2θ, set t=tan2θ, so u=t1. Then sinθ=1+t22t. Substituting t=u1:
Note that (p+q)±2pq=(p±q)2 and p−q=(p)2−(q)2=(p−q)(p+q). So:
u=(p−q)(p+q)(p±q)2.
This gives two cases:
Case 1: Using the positive sign:
u1=(p−q)(p+q)(p+q)2=p−qp+q.
Case 2: Using the negative sign:
u2=(p−q)(p+q)(p−q)2=p+qp−q.
Now, substitute back into u+1u−1.
For u1=p−qp+q:
u1+1u1−1=p−qp+q+1p−qp+q−1.
Simplify numerator:
p−qp+q−1=p−qp+q−(p−q)=p−q2q.
Simplify denominator:
p−qp+q+1=p−qp+q+p−q=p−q2p.
So:
u1+1u1−1=p−q2pp−q2q=2p2q=pq.
For u2=p+qp−q:
u2+1u2−1=p+qp−q+1p+qp−q−1.
Simplify numerator:
p+qp−q−1=p+qp−q−(p+q)=p+q−2q.
Simplify denominator:
p+qp−q+1=p+qp−q+p+q=p+q2p.
So:
u2+1u2−1=p+q2pp+q−2q=2p−2q=−pq.
Thus, cot(4π+2θ) is either pq or −pq. Taking the absolute value:
cot(4π+2θ)=±pq=pq.
Comparing with the options:
A. pq
B. qp
C. pq
D. pq
Option C matches pq. Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 69MathematicsSection A • MCQtrigonometric equations
+4 / -1
The number of values of α in [0,2π] for which 2sin3α−7sin2α+7sinα=2, is:
A
3
B
1
C
6
D
4
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The given equation is 2sin3α−7sin2α+7sinα=2, and we need to find the number of values of α in the interval [0,2π] that satisfy it.
First, rearrange the equation to bring all terms to one side:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
2\sin^3\alpha …" style="color:#cc0000">$
2\sin^3\alpha - 7\sin^2\alpha + 7\sin\alpha - 2 = 0$
To simplify, substitute x=sinα. Since α is in [0,2π], x ranges from −1 to 1. The equation becomes:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
2x^3 - 7x^2 + …" style="color:#cc0000">$
2x^3 - 7x^2 + 7x - 2 = 0$
This is a cubic equation. Using the rational root theorem, possible rational roots are ±1,±2,±21. Testing x=1:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
2(1)^3 - 7(1)^…" style="color:#cc0000">$
2(1)^3 - 7(1)^2 + 7(1) - 2 = 2 - 7 + 7 - 2 = 0$
So, x=1 is a root. Factor out (x−1) using synthetic division. The coefficients are 2,−7,7,−2. Dividing by (x−1):
- Bring down 2.
- Multiply by 1: 2×1=2.
- Add to next coefficient: −7+2=−5.
- Multiply by 1: −5×1=−5.
- Add to next coefficient: 7+(−5)=2.
- Multiply by 1: 2×1=2.
- Add to last coefficient: −2+2=0.
The quotient is 2x2−5x+2. So, the cubic factors as:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
(x - 1)(2x^2 -…" style="color:#cc0000">$
(x - 1)(2x^2 - 5x + 2) = 0$
Set each factor to zero:
- x−1=0 gives x=1.
- 2x2−5x+2=0. Solve using the quadratic formula:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
x = \frac{5 …" style="color:#cc0000">$
x = \frac{5 \pm \sqrt{(-5)^2 - 4 \cdot 2 \cdot 2}}{4} = \frac{5 \pm \sqrt{25 - 16}}{4} = \frac{5 \pm \sqrt{9}}{4} = \frac{5 \pm 3}{4}$
So, x=48=2 or x=42=21.
The roots are x=1, x=2, and x=21. Since x=sinα must be in [−1,1], x=2 is invalid. The valid solutions are x=1 and x=21.
Now, solve for α in [0,2π]:
- sinα=1 has one solution: α=2π.
- sinα=21 has two solutions: α=6π and α=65π.
Verify each solution in the original equation:
- For α=6π, sinα=21:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
2\left(\frac…" style="color:#cc0000">$
2\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^3 - 7\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2 + 7\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) = 2 \cdot \frac{1}{8} - 7 \cdot \frac{1}{4} + 7 \cdot \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{4} - \frac{7}{4} + \frac{14}{4} = \frac{1 - 7 + 14}{4} = \frac{8}{4} = 2$
- For α=2π, sinα=1:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
2(1)^3 - 7(1…" style="color:#cc0000">$
2(1)^3 - 7(1)^2 + 7(1) = 2 - 7 + 7 = 2$
- For α=65π, sinα=21:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
2\left(\frac…" style="color:#cc0000">$
2\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^3 - 7\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2 + 7\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) = \frac{1}{4} - \frac{7}{4} + \frac{14}{4} = \frac{8}{4} = 2$
All three solutions satisfy the equation. The solutions are distinct and within [0,2π]: α=6π, α=2π, and α=65π.
Hence, the number of values of α is 3.
So, the answer is 3.
Q 70MathematicsSection A • MCQstraight lines
+4 / -1
Given three points P, Q, R with P(5,3) and R lies on the x-axis. If the equation of RQ is x−2y=2 and PQ is parallel to the x-axis, then the centroid of ΔPQR lies on the line:
A
x−2y+1=0
B
2x+y−9=0
C
2x−5y=0
D
5x−2y=0
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given three points P, Q, and R. Point P is at (5, 3). Point R lies on the x-axis, so its y-coordinate is 0. Let the coordinates of R be (h, 0). The equation of line RQ is given as x−2y=2. Also, PQ is parallel to the x-axis. Since PQ is parallel to the x-axis and P has y-coordinate 3, the y-coordinate of Q must also be 3. Let the coordinates of Q be (a, 3).
Since R lies on the line RQ, we substitute R(h, 0) into the equation x−2y=2:
h−2×0=2
h=2
So, R is at (2, 0).
Now, Q(a, 3) must also lie on the line RQ because RQ is the line joining R and Q. Substitute Q(a, 3) into the equation x−2y=2:
a−2×3=2
a−6=2
a=8
Therefore, Q is at (8, 3).
We now have the coordinates:
P(5, 3), Q(8, 3), R(2, 0)
The centroid of triangle PQR is found by averaging the x-coordinates and y-coordinates of the vertices. Let the centroid be G(x_g, y_g).
xg=3xP+xQ+xR=35+8+2=315=5
yg=3yP+yQ+yR=33+3+0=36=2
So, the centroid G is at (5, 2).
We need to determine which line this centroid lies on by substituting (5, 2) into each option.
Option A: x−2y+1=0
Substitute x = 5, y = 2:
5−2×2+1=5−4+1=2=0
Not satisfied.
Option B: 2x+y−9=0
Substitute x = 5, y = 2:
2×5+2−9=10+2−9=3=0
Not satisfied.
Option C: 2x−5y=0
Substitute x = 5, y = 2:
2×5−5×2=10−10=0
Satisfied.
Option D: 5x−2y=0
Substitute x = 5, y = 2:
5×5−2×2=25−4=21=0
Not satisfied.
Hence, the centroid lies on the line given in Option C: 2x−5y=0. So, the answer is Option C.
Q 71MathematicsSection A • MCQstraight lines
+4 / -1
Let a and b be any two numbers satisfying a21+b21=41. Then, the foot of perpendicular from the origin on the variable line ax+by=1 lies on:
A
A circle of radius = 2
B
A hyperbola with each semi-axis = 2
C
A hyperbola with each semi-axis = 2
D
A circle of radius = 2
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given that a and b satisfy the equation a21+b21=41. The variable line is given by ax+by=1. We need to find the locus of the foot of the perpendicular from the origin (0,0) to this line.
First, rewrite the line equation in standard form. Multiply both sides by ab to clear denominators:
bx+ay=ab
So, the line is bx+ay−ab=0. Here, A=b, B=a, and C=−ab.
The foot of the perpendicular from (0,0) to the line Ax+By+C=0 can be found using the formulas:
We are given the condition a21+b21=41. Rewrite this as:
a2b2b2+a2=41
Multiply both sides by a2b2:
a2+b2=4a2b2
Rearrange to solve for a2+b2a2b2:
a2+b2a2b2=4
Substitute this into the expression for h2+k2:
h2+k2=4
This equation represents a circle centered at the origin (0,0) with radius 2.
Comparing with the options:
A. A circle of radius = 2
B. A hyperbola with each semi-axis = 2
C. A hyperbola with each semi-axis = 2
D. A circle of radius = 2
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 72MathematicsSection A • MCQcircles
+4 / -1
If the point (1,4) lies inside the circle x2+y2−6x+10y+p=0 and the circle does not touch or intersect the coordinate axes, then the set of all possible values of p is the interval:
A
(25, 39)
B
(25, 29)
C
(0, 25)
D
(9, 25)
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The equation of the circle is x2+y2−6x−10y+P=0
(x−3)2+(y−5)2=(34−P)2......(i)
Centre = (3,5) and radius r=34−P
If circle does not touch or intersect the x - axis then radius <y - coordinate of centre C or 34−P<5
⟹34−P<25⟹P>9......(ii)
Also if the circle does not touch or intersect y - axis the radius <x - coordinate of centre C.
or 34−P<3⟹34−P<9⟹P>25.......(iii)
If the point (1,4) is inside the circle, then its distance from centre C<r.
or (3−1)2+(5−4)2<34−P⟹5<34−P
⟹P<29.........(iv)
Now all the conditions (ii), (iii) and (iv) are satisfied if 25<P<29 which is required value of P.
Q 73MathematicsSection A • MCQellipse
+4 / -1
If OB is the semi-minor axis of an ellipse, F1 and F2 are its foci and the angle between F1B and F2B is a right angle, then the square of the eccentricity of the ellipse is:
A
41
B
21
C
21
D
221
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Consider the standard ellipse centered at the origin with the equation a2x2+b2y2=1, where a is the semi-major axis and b is the semi-minor axis. Therefore, OB=b. The foci are at F1(−c,0) and F2(c,0), where c=a2−b2. The eccentricity e is given by e=ac, so c=ea.
Point B is one end of the minor axis, so its coordinates are (0,b). The vector from F1 to B is F1B=(0−(−c),b−0)=(c,b). The vector from F2 to B is F2B=(0−c,b−0)=(−c,b).
The angle between F1B and F2B is a right angle, so their dot product is zero:
F1B⋅F2B=(c)⋅(−c)+(b)⋅(b)=−c2+b2=0
This gives:
b2−c2=0⇒b2=c2
For an ellipse, c2=a2−b2. Substituting b2=c2:
b2=a2−b2
Adding b2 to both sides:
b2+b2=a2⇒2b2=a2⇒a2b2=21
The square of the eccentricity is e2=1−a2b2. Substituting a2b2=21:
e2=1−21=21
Hence, the square of the eccentricity is 21. Comparing with the options, Option C is 21. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 74MathematicsSection A • MCQlimits continuity and differentiability
+4 / -1
If f(x) is continuous and f(29)=92, then limx→0f(x21−cos3x) equals to:
A
98
B
0
C
92
D
29
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given that f(x) is continuous and f(29)=92. We need to find the limit:
limx→0f(x21−cos3x)
Since f is continuous, we can move the limit inside the function. This means:
limx→0f(x21−cos3x)=f(limx→0x21−cos3x)
So, we first compute the limit inside:
L=limx→0x21−cos3x
We know the trigonometric identity 1−cosθ=2sin2(2θ). Substituting θ=3x:
1−cos3x=2sin2(23x)
Therefore:
x21−cos3x=x22sin2(23x)
We can rewrite this as:
x22sin2(23x)=2⋅(xsin(23x))2
Now, express xsin(23x) in terms of 23xsin(23x):
Now, substituting back into the original expression:
limx→0f(x21−cos3x)=f(29)
Given that f(29)=92, we have:
f(29)=92
Hence, the limit is 92.
Q 75MathematicsSection A • MCQmathematical reasoning
+4 / -1
The contrapositive of the statement "I go to school if it does not rain" is:
A
If it rains, I go to school.
B
If it rains, I do not go to school.
C
If I go to school, it rains.
D
If I do not go to school, it rains.
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Concept: For any conditional implication of the form p⟹q ("if p then q"), its contrapositive is defined as:
∼q⟹∼p
Here, the original statement is: "I go to school if it does not rain".
Rewriting in conditional form (p⟹q):
p: It does not rain
q: I go to school
Statement: "If it does not rain, then I go to school"
Forming the contrapositive ∼q⟹∼p:
∼q: I do not go to school
∼p: It rains (negation of "it does not rain")
Therefore, the contrapositive is: "If I do not go to school, it rains."
Correct Option: (D)
Q 76MathematicsSection A • MCQstatistics
+4 / -1
In a set of 2n distinct observations, each of the observation below the median of all the observations is increased by 5 and each of the remaining observations is decreased by 3. Then, the mean of the new set of observations:
A
Increases by 2
B
Increases by 1
C
Decreases by 2
D
Decreases by 1
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given a set of 2n distinct observations. Since the number of observations is even, the median is the average of the n-th and (n+1)-th observations when arranged in ascending order. However, for this problem, we do not need the exact median value. Instead, we note that:
The observations below the median are the smallest n observations (positions 1 to n in ascending order), and the observations above the median are the largest n observations (positions n+1 to 2n). This is because, with distinct observations sorted in ascending order, the n-th observation is less than the median and the (n+1)-th observation is greater than the median.
Let the original sum of all 2n observations be S. Therefore, the original mean is 2nS.
According to the problem:
Each observation below the median (i.e., the first n observations) is increased by 5.
Each observation above the median (i.e., the last n observations) is decreased by 3.
Let the sum of the first n observations be S1 and the sum of the last n observations be S2. Then, the original sum S=S1+S2.
After the changes:
The sum of the first n observations becomes S1+5n (since each of the n observations increases by 5).
The sum of the last n observations becomes S2−3n (since each of the n observations decreases by 3).
The new total sum S′ is:
S′=(S1+5n)+(S2−3n)=S1+S2+5n−3n=S+2n
The new mean is:
New mean=2nS′=2nS+2n=2nS+2n2n=2nS+1
Thus, the new mean is the original mean plus 1. Therefore, the mean increases by 1.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 77MathematicsSection A • MCQsets and relations
+4 / -1
Let P be the relation defined on the set of all real numbers such that P={(a,b):sec2a−tan2b=1}. Then, P is:
A
reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
B
symmetric and transitive but not reflexive
C
reflexive and transitive but not symmetric
D
an equivalence relation
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The relation P is defined on the set of all real numbers as P={(a,b):sec2a−tan2b=1}. However, seca and tanb are undefined when a or b is an odd multiple of π/2, i.e., a=(2k+1)π/2 or b=(2k+1)π/2 for any integer k. Therefore, the domain D for which the relation is defined consists of all real numbers except these points. We will check the properties of reflexivity, symmetry, and transitivity for P on this domain D.
Reflexivity: A relation is reflexive if for every a in the domain, (a,a) is in P. For any a∈D, we need to check if sec2a−tan2a=1. Using the trigonometric identity sec2θ−tan2θ=1, which holds for all θ where both functions are defined, we have sec2a−tan2a=1. Thus, (a,a)∈P for all a∈D. Therefore, P is reflexive.
Symmetry: A relation is symmetric if whenever (a,b)∈P, then (b,a)∈P. Assume (a,b)∈P, so sec2a−tan2b=1. We need to show that sec2b−tan2a=1. From the given condition, sec2a−tan2b=1. Rearranging, sec2a=1+tan2b. Using the identity sec2b=1+tan2b, we substitute to get sec2b=1+tan2b. Similarly, tan2a=sec2a−1=(1+tan2b)−1=tan2b. Now, sec2b−tan2a=(1+tan2b)−tan2a. Since tan2a=tan2b, this becomes 1+tan2b−tan2b=1. Thus, sec2b−tan2a=1, so (b,a)∈P. Therefore, P is symmetric.
Transitivity: A relation is transitive if whenever (a,b)∈P and (b,c)∈P, then (a,c)∈P. Assume (a,b)∈P and (b,c)∈P, so sec2a−tan2b=1 and sec2b−tan2c=1. We need to show sec2a−tan2c=1. From (a,b)∈P, sec2a−tan2b=1, so sec2a=1+tan2b. From (b,c)∈P, sec2b−tan2c=1, so tan2c=sec2b−1. Now, sec2a−tan2c=(1+tan2b)−(sec2b−1). Since sec2b=1+tan2b, substitute to get sec2a−tan2c=1+tan2b−[(1+tan2b)−1]=1+tan2b−[tan2b]=1. Thus, sec2a−tan2c=1, so (a,c)∈P. Therefore, P is transitive.
Since P is reflexive, symmetric, and transitive on its domain, it is an equivalence relation.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 78MathematicsSection A • MCQmatrices and determinants
+4 / -1
If B is a 3×3 matrix such that B2=0, then det[(I+B)50−50B] is equal to:
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
50
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Given that B is a 3×3 matrix such that B2=0, we need to find det[(I+B)50−50B].
Since B2=0, B is a nilpotent matrix of index 2. This means that any power of B greater than or equal to 2 is the zero matrix. Specifically, Bk=0 for all k≥2.
Now, consider (I+B)50. The identity matrix I commutes with every matrix, so I commutes with B. Therefore, we can expand (I+B)50 using the binomial theorem:
(I+B)50=∑k=050(k50)I50−kBk
Since Im=I for any positive integer m, this simplifies to:
(I+B)50=∑k=050(k50)Bk
Because Bk=0 for k≥2, all terms where k≥2 vanish. Thus, only the terms for k=0 and k=1 remain:
For k=0: (050)B0=1⋅I=I
For k=1: (150)B1=50B
So, (I+B)50=I+50B.
Now, substitute this into the expression:
(I+B)50−50B=(I+50B)−50B=I
Therefore, (I+B)50−50B=I, the identity matrix.
The determinant of the identity matrix of size 3×3 is 1:
det(I)=1
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 79MathematicsSection A • MCQmatrices and determinants
+4 / -1
If a, b, c are non-zero real numbers and if the system of equations (a−1)x=y+z (b−1)y=x+z (c−1)z=x+y has a non-trivial solution, then ab+bc+ca equals:
A
−1
B
a+b+c
C
abc
D
1
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The given equations are
(a−1)x(b−1)y(c−1)z=y+z,=x+z,=x+y.
Bring every term to the left so that each equation is of the form
A11x+A12y+A13z=0.
(a−1)x−y−z−x+(b−1)y−z−x−y+(c−1)z=0,=0,=0.
Hence the coefficient matrix of the system is
a−1−1−1−1b−1−1−1−1c−1.
For a non-trivial solution the determinant of this matrix must be zero.
Introduce the short-hand
p=a−1,q=b−1,r=c−1.
The determinant becomes
Q 80MathematicsSection A • MCQlimits continuity and differentiability
+4 / -1
If y=enx, then dx2d2y⋅dy2d2x is equal to:
A
ne−nx
B
−ne−nx
C
nenx
D
1
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given that y=enx. We need to find dx2d2y⋅dy2d2x.
First, we find dx2d2y. Since y=enx, we start by finding the first derivative dxdy. The derivative of enx with respect to x is nenx, so:
dxdy=nenx
But since y=enx, we can write dxdy=ny. Now, to find the second derivative dx2d2y, we differentiate dxdy again with respect to x:
dx2d2y=dxd(ny)
Using the chain rule, since y is a function of x, we get:
dxd(ny)=ndxdy=n⋅(ny)=n2y
Alternatively, differentiating directly:
dxd(nenx)=n⋅nenx=n2enx=n2y
So, dx2d2y=n2y.
Next, we need dy2d2x. This requires expressing x in terms of y. Given y=enx, we solve for x:
Take the natural logarithm of both sides:
lny=ln(enx)
lny=nx
Therefore,
x=n1lny
Now, find the first derivative dydx:
dydx=dyd(n1lny)=n1⋅y1=ny1
Now, find the second derivative dy2d2x by differentiating dydx with respect to y:
dy2d2x=dyd(ny1)=n1⋅dyd(y−1)
The derivative of y−1 is −y−2, so:
dy2d2x=n1⋅(−y−2)=−ny21
Now, we multiply the two second derivatives:
dx2d2y⋅dy2d2x=(n2y)⋅(−ny21)
Simplify the expression:
=n2y⋅(−ny21)=−nn2⋅y2y=−n⋅y1=−yn
Since y=enx, substitute back:
−yn=−enxn=−ne−nx
because enx1=e−nx.
Therefore, dx2d2y⋅dy2d2x=−ne−nx.
Comparing with the options:
A. ne−nx
B. −ne−nx
C. nenx
D. 1
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 81MathematicsSection A • MCQapplication of derivatives
+4 / -1
If f(x)=(53)x+(54)x−1, x∈R, then the equation f(x)=0 has:
A
No solution
B
More than two solutions
C
One solution
D
Two solutions
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given the function f(x)=(53)x+(54)x−1 for all real numbers x, and we need to solve f(x)=0. This means we must find the values of x such that (53)x+(54)x=1.
First, note that both 53 and 54 are fractions less than 1, so as x increases, each term (53)x and (54)x decreases exponentially. To understand the behavior of f(x), we evaluate it at some specific points.
At x=0: f(0)=(53)0+(54)0−1=1+1−1=1, which is greater than 0.
At x=1: f(1)=53+54−1=57−1=52, which is greater than 0.
At x=2: f(2)=(53)2+(54)2−1=259+2516−1=2525−1=1−1=0. So, x=2 is a solution.
At x=3: f(3)=(53)3+(54)3−1=12527+12564−1=12591−1=12591−125=125−34, which is less than 0.
Now, check for negative values. At x=−1: f(−1)=(53)−1+(54)−1−1=35+45−1.
Compute 35+45=1220+1215=1235, then f(−1)=1235−1=1235−1212=1223, which is greater than 0.
At x=−2: f(−2)=(53)−2+(54)−2−1=(35)2+(45)2−1=925+1625−1.
Compute 925+1625=25(91+161)=25(14416+9)=25×14425=144625, then f(−2)=144625−1=144625−144144=144481, which is greater than 0.
We have found that f(2)=0, and for x<2 (like x=−2,−1,0,1), f(x)>0, and for x>2 (like x=3), f(x)<0. To determine if there are more solutions, we analyze the derivative to see if the function is monotonic.
Define g(x)=(53)x+(54)x, so f(x)=g(x)−1. The derivative of g(x) is: g′(x)=dxd[(53)x]+dxd[(54)x].
Since dxdax=axlna, we have: g′(x)=(53)xln(53)+(54)xln(54).
Now, ln(53)<0 and ln(54)<0 because both fractions are less than 1. Also, (53)x>0 and (54)x>0 for all real x. Therefore, both terms in g′(x) are negative (positive times negative), so g′(x)<0 for all x. This means g(x) is strictly decreasing, and hence f(x) is also strictly decreasing for all real x.
Since f(x) is strictly decreasing and continuous, it can cross zero at most once. We already found one solution at x=2.
Now, check the limits to confirm the behavior:
As x→∞, (53)x→0 and (54)x→0, so f(x)→0+0−1=−1<0.
As x→−∞, let x=−t where t→∞, so f(−t)=(53)−t+(54)−t−1=(35)t+(45)t−1→∞ as t→∞.
Thus, f(x) starts from ∞ as x→−∞, decreases strictly, crosses zero at x=2, and goes to −1 as x→∞. Since it is strictly decreasing and continuous, it crosses zero exactly once.
Therefore, the equation f(x)=0 has exactly one solution.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 82MathematicsSection A • MCQapplication of derivatives
+4 / -1
If the Rolle's theorem holds for the function f(x)=2x3+ax2+bx in the interval [−1,1] for the point c=21, then the value of 2a+b is:
A
-1
B
2
C
1
D
-2
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given that Rolle's theorem holds for the function f(x)=2x3+ax2+bx in the interval [−1,1] at the point c=21. Rolle's theorem requires three conditions: the function must be continuous on the closed interval [−1,1], differentiable on the open interval (−1,1), and f(−1)=f(1). Additionally, since the theorem holds at c=21, we have f′(21)=0.
First, since f(x)=2x3+ax2+bx is a polynomial, it is continuous and differentiable everywhere, so the first two conditions of Rolle's theorem are automatically satisfied. We now use the third condition, f(−1)=f(1).
Compute f(1):
f(1)=2(1)3+a(1)2+b(1)=2+a+b
Compute f(−1):
f(−1)=2(−1)3+a(−1)2+b(−1)=2(−1)+a(1)−b=−2+a−b
Set f(−1)=f(1):
−2+a−b=2+a+b
Simplify this equation. Subtract a from both sides:
−2−b=2+b
Add b to both sides:
−2=2+2b
Subtract 2 from both sides:
−4=2b
Divide both sides by 2:
b=−2
So, we have b=−2.
Next, use the condition that f′(21)=0. First, find the derivative of f(x):
Notice that the denominator 1−2sin2xcos2x is the same as the second factor in the numerator. So, we can cancel this common factor (assuming it is not zero):
∫(sin2x−cos2x)dx
Recall the double-angle identity: sin2x−cos2x=−cos2x, because cos2x=cos2x−sin2x=−(sin2x−cos2x). Therefore:
∫(sin2x−cos2x)dx=∫−cos2xdx
Now, integrate −cos2x:
−∫cos2xdx=−21sin2x+c
Because the integral of coskx is ksinkx.
Thus, the integral simplifies to −21sin2x+c.
We must ensure that the denominator 1−2sin2xcos2x is never zero. Set it equal to zero:
1−2sin2xcos2x=0⟹2sin2xcos2x=1⟹sin2xcos2x=21
Using sinxcosx=2sin2x, so:
(2sin2x)2=21⟹4sin22x=21⟹sin22x=2
But sin22x≤1, so sin22x=2 has no real solution. Thus, the denominator is never zero, and the simplification is valid for all real x.
Comparing with the options:
A. −21sin2x+c
B. −sin2x+c
C. −21sinx+c
D. 21sin2x+c
Option A matches our result.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 84MathematicsSection A • MCQdefinite integration
+4 / -1
The integral ∫0211+4x2ln(1+2x)dx equals:
A
4πln2
B
16πln2
C
8πln2
D
32πln2
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To solve the integral ∫0211+4x2ln(1+2x)dx, start by making a substitution to simplify the expression. Set u=2x, which gives du=2dx or dx=2du. The limits change as follows: when x=0, u=0; when x=21, u=1. Substitute these into the integral:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\int_0^{\frac{…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\int_0^{\frac{1}{2}} \frac{\ln(1+2x)}{1+4x^2} dx = \int_0^1 \frac{\ln(1+u)}{1+u^2} \cdot \frac{du}{2} = \frac{1}{2} \int_0^1 \frac{\ln(1+u)}{1+u^2} du$
Now, focus on evaluating ∫011+u2ln(1+u)du. Use the trigonometric substitution u=tanθ, so du=sec2θdθ. The limits change: when u=0, θ=0; when u=1, θ=4π. Also, 1+u2=1+tan2θ=sec2θ. Substitute these into the integral:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\int_0^1 \frac…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\int_0^1 \frac{\ln(1+u)}{1+u^2} du = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \frac{\ln(1 + \tan \theta)}{\sec^2 \theta} \cdot \sec^2 \theta d\theta = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \ln(1 + \tan \theta) d\theta$
Denote this integral by I, so:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
I = \int_0^{\f…" style="color:#cc0000">$
I = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \ln(1 + \tan \theta) d\theta$
To evaluate I, use the substitution ϕ=4π−θ. Then dϕ=−dθ. The limits change: when θ=0, ϕ=4π; when θ=4π, ϕ=0. Now, express tanθ in terms of ϕ:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\tan \theta = …" style="color:#cc0000">$
\tan \theta = \tan\left(\frac{\pi}{4} - \phi\right) = \frac{1 - \tan \phi}{1 + \tan \phi}$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\ln(1 + \tan \…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\ln(1 + \tan \theta) = \ln\left(\frac{2}{1 + \tan \phi}\right) = \ln 2 - \ln(1 + \tan \phi)$
Substitute into the integral for I:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
I = \int_{\fra…" style="color:#cc0000">$
I = \int_{\frac{\pi}{4}}^{0} \left( \ln 2 - \ln(1 + \tan \phi) \right) (-d\phi) = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \left( \ln 2 - \ln(1 + \tan \phi) \right) d\phi$
Since ϕ is a dummy variable, it can be replaced by θ:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
I = \int_0^{\f…" style="color:#cc0000">$
I = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \ln 2 d\theta - \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \ln(1 + \tan \theta) d\theta = \ln 2 \cdot \left[ \theta \right]_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} - I$
Evaluate the first integral:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\int_0^{\frac{…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \ln 2 d\theta = \ln 2 \cdot \left( \frac{\pi}{4} - 0 \right) = \frac{\pi}{4} \ln 2$
So,
' in math mode at position 1:̲
I = \frac{\pi}…" style="color:#cc0000">$
I = \frac{\pi}{4} \ln 2 - I$
Solve for I:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
I + I = \frac{…" style="color:#cc0000">$
I + I = \frac{\pi}{4} \ln 2$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
2I = \frac{\pi…" style="color:#cc0000">$
2I = \frac{\pi}{4} \ln 2$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
I = \frac{\pi}…" style="color:#cc0000">$
I = \frac{\pi}{8} \ln 2$
Thus, ∫04πln(1+tanθ)dθ=8πln2, and therefore:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\int_0^1 \frac…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\int_0^1 \frac{\ln(1+u)}{1+u^2} du = \frac{\pi}{8} \ln 2$
Now substitute back into the original expression:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\frac{1}{2} \i…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\frac{1}{2} \int_0^1 \frac{\ln(1+u)}{1+u^2} du = \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{\pi}{8} \ln 2 = \frac{\pi}{16} \ln 2$
Hence, the integral ∫0211+4x2ln(1+2x)dx=16πln2. Comparing with the options, this matches option B.
So, the answer is Option B.
Q 85MathematicsSection A • MCQarea under the curves
+4 / -1
Let A={(x,y):y2≤4x,y−2x≥−4}. The area of the region A in square units is:
A
10
B
8
C
9
D
11
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The region A is defined by the inequalities y2≤4x and y−2x≥−4. To find the area, we first analyze these inequalities.
The inequality y2≤4x can be rewritten as x≥4y2, which represents the region to the right of the parabola x=4y2, including the parabola itself. The vertex of this parabola is at (0,0), and it opens to the right.
The second inequality y−2x≥−4 can be rearranged to y≥2x−4, which represents the region above the line y=2x−4, including the line. This line has a slope of 2 and a y-intercept of −4.
To determine the bounded region, we find the points of intersection between the parabola x=4y2 and the line y=2x−4. Substitute x=4y2 into the line equation:
y=2(4y2)−4
Simplify:
y=2y2−4
Bring all terms to one side:
2y2−y−4=0
Multiply both sides by 2 to clear the denominator:
y2−2y−8=0
Solve the quadratic equation using the discriminant D=b2−4ac=(−2)2−4(1)(−8)=4+32=36:
y=22±36=22±6
So, the solutions are:
y=22+6=28=4andy=22−6=2−4=−2
Find the corresponding x values using x=4y2:
For y=4:
x=442=416=4
For y=−2:
x=4(−2)2=44=1
Thus, the points of intersection are (4,4) and (1,−2).
The region A is bounded between y=−2 and y=4. For each y in this interval, the x values range from the parabola x=4y2 (left boundary) to the line x=2y+4 (right boundary), derived from y≥2x−4 which gives x≤2y+4.
Verify that 4y2≤2y+4 for y∈[−2,4]:
At y=−2: 4(−2)2=1 and 2−2+4=1, so 1≤1.
At y=0: 40=0 and 20+4=2, so 0≤2.
At y=4: 442=4 and 24+4=4, so 4≤4.
The inequality holds, so the area is given by the integral:
Q 86MathematicsSection A • MCQdifferential equations
+4 / -1
If the differential equation representing the family of all circles touching x-axis at the origin is (x2−y2)dxdy=g(x)y, then g(x) equals:
A
21x2
B
2x
C
21x
D
2x2
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The problem involves finding the function g(x) in the differential equation (x2−y2)dxdy=g(x)y that represents the family of all circles touching the x-axis at the origin.
First, consider the family of circles. Since each circle touches the x-axis at the origin (0,0), the center must lie on the y-axis. This is because the radius to the point of tangency is perpendicular to the tangent (x-axis), so the center has coordinates (0,k) for some constant k. The radius is the distance from (0,k) to (0,0), which is ∣k∣. Thus, the equation of the circle is:
x2+(y−k)2=k2
Expanding this:
x2+y2−2ky+k2=k2
Simplifying by subtracting k2 from both sides:
x2+y2−2ky=0(1)
To form the differential equation, eliminate the arbitrary constant k. Differentiate equation (1) with respect to x:
dxd(x2)+dxd(y2)−dxd(2ky)=dxd(0)
Applying the chain rule and noting that k is constant:
2x+2ydxdy−2kdxdy=0
Divide the entire equation by 2:
x+ydxdy−kdxdy=0
Rearrange the terms:
x+(y−k)dxdy=0(2)
Solve for k from equation (1):
x2+y2−2ky=0⟹2ky=x2+y2⟹k=2yx2+y2(3)
Substitute this expression for k into equation (2):
Multiply every term by 2y to clear the denominator:
2y⋅x+(y2−x2)dxdy=0
Rearrange:
(y2−x2)dxdy=−2xy
Note that y2−x2=−(x2−y2), so:
−(x2−y2)dxdy=−2xy
Multiply both sides by −1:
(x2−y2)dxdy=2xy
Compare this with the given form (x2−y2)dxdy=g(x)y. Here, 2xy=2x⋅y, so g(x)y=2xy, which implies g(x)=2x.
Now, check the options:
A. 21x2
B. 2x
C. 21x
D. 2x2
Thus, g(x)=2x corresponds to option B.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 87MathematicsSection A • MCQvector algebra
+4 / -1
If ∣a∣=2, ∣b∣=3 and ∣2a−b∣=5, then ∣2a+b∣ equals:
A
5
B
7
C
17
D
1
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given the magnitudes of vectors a and b: ∣a∣=2 and ∣b∣=3. Also, the magnitude of 2a−b is given as ∣2a−b∣=5. We need to find the magnitude of ∣2a+b∣.
Recall that for any vector v, the square of its magnitude is equal to the dot product of the vector with itself: ∣v∣2=v⋅v. We can use this property to solve the problem.
First, consider the given ∣2a−b∣=5. Squaring both sides gives:
∣2a−b∣2=52=25.
Now, expand the left side using the dot product:
(2a−b)⋅(2a−b)=(2a)⋅(2a)−(2a)⋅b−b⋅(2a)+(−b)⋅(−b).
Simplify this expression. Since the dot product is commutative and distributive, we have:
(2a)⋅(2a)=4(a⋅a)=4∣a∣2,(−b)⋅(−b)=b⋅b=∣b∣2,
and the cross terms:
−(2a)⋅b−b⋅(2a)=−2(a⋅b)−2(b⋅a).
Since the dot product is commutative, a⋅b=b⋅a, so the cross terms become:
−2(a⋅b)−2(a⋅b)=−4(a⋅b).
Therefore, the expansion is:
∣2a−b∣2=4∣a∣2−4(a⋅b)+∣b∣2.
Substitute the known magnitudes ∣a∣=2 and ∣b∣=3, so ∣a∣2=4 and ∣b∣2=9:
4×4−4(a⋅b)+9=25.
Simplify the left side:
16−4(a⋅b)+9=25,25−4(a⋅b)=25.
Subtract 25 from both sides:
−4(a⋅b)=0,
so
a⋅b=0.
This means the dot product of a and b is zero, indicating that the vectors are perpendicular.
Now, we need to find ∣2a+b∣. Square this expression:
∣2a+b∣2=(2a+b)⋅(2a+b).
Expand the dot product:
(2a)⋅(2a)+(2a)⋅b+b⋅(2a)+b⋅b.
Simplify each term:
(2a)⋅(2a)=4(a⋅a)=4∣a∣2,b⋅b=∣b∣2,
and the cross terms:
(2a)⋅b+b⋅(2a)=2(a⋅b)+2(a⋅b)=4(a⋅b), since the dot product is commutative.
So,
∣2a+b∣2=4∣a∣2+4(a⋅b)+∣b∣2.
Substitute the values ∣a∣2=4, ∣b∣2=9, and a⋅b=0:
4×4+4×0+9=16+0+9=25.
Therefore,
∣2a+b∣=25=5.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 88MathematicsSection A • MCQ3d geometry
+4 / -1
Equation of the plane which passes through the point of intersection of lines 3x−1=1y−2=2z−3 and 1x−3=2y−1=3z−2 and has the largest distance from the origin is:
A
4x+3y+5z=50
B
3x+4y+5z=49
C
5x+4y+3z=57
D
7x+2y+4z=54
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
First Line: (x,y,z)=(3λ+1,λ+2,2λ+3)
Second line: (x,y,z)=(μ+3,2μ+1,3μ+2)
Point of intersection: 3λ+1=μ+3⟹μ=3λ−2
λ+2=2μ+1
λ+2=2(3λ−2)+1
5λ=5⟹λ=1
Thus, the point of intersection is P(4,3,5)
For a plane passing through a fixed point P to have the maximum possible perpendicular distance from the origin O(0,0,0), the line segment OP must be perpendicular to the plane. Therefore, the position vector OP serves as the normal vector (n) to the plane.
OP=(4−0)i^+(3−0)j^+(5−0)k^=4i^+3j^+5k^
The direction ratios of the normal are (4,3,5)
Equation of plane: a(x−x1)+b(y−y1)+c(z−z1)=0
4(x−4)+3(y−3)+5(z−5)=0
4x+3y+5z=50
Q 89MathematicsSection A • MCQ3d geometry
+4 / -1
A line in the 3-dimensional space makes an angle θ (0<θ≤2π) with both the X and Y-axes. Then, the set of all values of θ is in the interval:
A
(3π,2π]
B
(0,4π]
C
[4π,2π]
D
[6π,3π]
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Consider a line in 3-dimensional space with direction cosines l, m, and n, which represent the cosines of the angles the line makes with the X-axis, Y-axis, and Z-axis, respectively. Given that the line makes an angle θ with both the X-axis and Y-axis, we have l=cosθ and m=cosθ.
The fundamental property of direction cosines states that l2+m2+n2=1. Substituting the values, we get:
(cosθ)2+(cosθ)2+n2=1
Simplifying, this becomes:
2cos2θ+n2=1
Rearranging for n2:
n2=1−2cos2θ
Using the double-angle identity cos(2θ)=2cos2θ−1, we can rewrite 1−2cos2θ as:
1−2cos2θ=−(2cos2θ−1)=−cos(2θ)
Thus,
n2=−cos(2θ)
Since n2 represents the square of a real number, it must be non-negative:
n2≥0⇒−cos(2θ)≥0⇒cos(2θ)≤0
The condition cos(2θ)≤0 holds when 2θ lies in the interval where cosine is non-positive. Given that θ is in (0,π/2], the range for 2θ is (0,π]. Cosine is non-positive in the interval [π/2,π], so:
2π≤2θ≤π
Dividing by 2:
4π≤θ≤2π
Now, verify the endpoints:
At θ=π/4, l=cos(π/4)=2/2, m=2/2. Then n2=1−2(2/2)2=1−2×(1/2)=1−1=0, so n=0, which is valid.
At θ=π/2, l=cos(π/2)=0, m=0. Then n2=1−2×02=1, so n=±1, which is valid.
Values outside this interval are invalid. For example, if θ=π/6 (less than π/4), then l=cos(π/6)=3/2, m=3/2, and n2=1−2(3/2)2=1−2×(3/4)=1−3/2=−1/2<0, which is impossible.
Thus, the set of all possible values of θ is the closed interval [π/4,π/2]. Comparing with the options:
A. (3π,2π] excludes π/3 and π/4, but π/4 is valid.
B. (0,4π] includes values less than π/4 (e.g., π/6) which are invalid.
C. [4π,2π] matches the derived interval.
D. [6π,3π] includes π/6 which is invalid.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 90MathematicsSection A • MCQprobability
+4 / -1
If A and B are two events such that P(A∪B)=P(A∩B), then the incorrect statement amongst the following statements is:
A
P(A)+P(B)=1
B
P(A∩B′)=0
C
A & B are equally likely
D
P(A′∩B)=0
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given that for two events A and B, P(A∪B)=P(A∩B). Let P(A∩B)=x. Then, P(A∪B)=x.
Recall the formula for the probability of the union of two events: P(A∪B)=P(A)+P(B)−P(A∩B). Substituting the given values, we get:
x=P(A)+P(B)−x
Adding x to both sides:
x+x=P(A)+P(B)
2x=P(A)+P(B)
So, P(A)+P(B)=2x, which means P(A)+P(B)=2P(A∩B). Let this be equation (1).
Now, we examine each option to find which one is incorrect.
Option A: P(A)+P(B)=1
From equation (1), P(A)+P(B)=2P(A∩B). This equals 1 only if 2P(A∩B)=1, i.e., P(A∩B)=21. However, this is not necessarily true. For example, if A and B are the entire sample space, then P(A)=1, P(B)=1, P(A∩B)=1, and P(A∪B)=1, so P(A∪B)=P(A∩B) holds, but P(A)+P(B)=2=1. Thus, this statement is not always true.
Option B: P(A∩B′)=0
Note that A∩B′ is the set of elements in A but not in B. We can express P(A) as:
Since probabilities are non-negative, each term must be zero. Therefore, P(A∩B′)=0 and P(A′∩B)=0. Hence, this statement is true.
Option C: A and B are equally likely
This means P(A)=P(B). From option B, we have P(A∩B′)=0 and P(A′∩B)=0. This implies that the event A−B (elements in A but not in B) has probability zero, and similarly, B−A has probability zero. Therefore, A and B are equal except possibly on a set of probability zero, so P(A)=P(B). Thus, this statement is true.
Option D: P(A′∩B)=0
As derived in option B, P(A′∩B)=0. Hence, this statement is true.
Only option A is not always true, as it depends on the specific value of P(A∩B). Therefore, the incorrect statement is option A.