Official NTA Question PaperFull Solved Paper2014Morning Shift
JEE Main 2014 19th April Morning Shift Question Paper with Solutions
Official solved question paper for Joint Entrance Examination (Main). Review all 90 questions, official answer keys, and detailed step-by-step solutions below, or attempt online with timer and negative marking.
Q 1PhysicsSection A • MCQmotion in a straight line
+4 / -1
A bullet loses (n1)th of its velocity passing through one plank. Considering uniform retardation, the number of such planks that are required to stop the bullet can be:
A
Infinite
B
n
C
(2n−1)n2
D
(n−1)2n2
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
A bullet loses (n1)th of its velocity when passing through one plank. This means if the initial velocity is u, after passing through one plank, the velocity becomes u−nu=u(1−n1)=u(nn−1). The retardation is uniform, so we can use the equation of motion v2=u2+2as, where v is the final velocity, u is the initial velocity, a is the acceleration (which is negative for retardation), and s is the distance traveled (thickness of one plank).
For one plank, initial velocity u, final velocity v=unn−1, acceleration a=−a (where a>0 is the magnitude of retardation), and distance s. Substituting into the equation:
(unn−1)2=u2+2(−a)s
u2n2(n−1)2=u2−2as
Bring all terms to one side:
u2n2(n−1)2−u2=−2as
u2(n2(n−1)2−1)=−2as
Simplify the expression inside the parentheses:
n2(n−1)2−1=n2(n−1)2−n2=n2n2−2n+1−n2=n2−2n+1
So:
u2(n2−2n+1)=−2as
Multiply both sides by −1:
u2(n22n−1)=2as
Solve for s:
s=2an2u2(2n−1)
Now, to stop the bullet, the final velocity must be zero. Let N be the number of planks required. The total distance covered is Ns. Using the equation of motion again, with initial velocity u, final velocity 0, acceleration −a, and distance Ns:
02=u2+2(−a)(Ns)
0=u2−2aNs
2aNs=u2
N=2asu2
Substitute the expression for s:
N=2a(2an2u2(2n−1))u2=2au2(2n−1)u2⋅2an2=2n−1n2
Thus, the number of planks required to stop the bullet is 2n−1n2. Comparing with the options:
A. Infinite B. n C. 2n−1n2 D. n−12n2
The expression 2n−1n2 matches option C. Therefore, the correct answer is option C.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 2PhysicsSection A • MCQlaws of motion
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A heavy box is to be dragged along a rough horizontal floor. To do so, the person A pushes it at an angle 30° from the horizontal and requires a minimum force FA, while the person B pulls the box at an angle 60° from the horizontal and needs minimum force FB. If the coefficient of friction between the box and the floor is 53, the ratio FBFA is:
A
23
B
32
C
3
D
35
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
A heavy box is dragged along a rough horizontal floor. The coefficient of friction is given as μ=53. Person A pushes the box at an angle of 30° from the horizontal with a minimum force FA, and person B pulls it at an angle of 60° from the horizontal with a minimum force FB. We need to find the ratio FBFA.
First, consider the forces acting on the box. The weight of the box is mg, where m is the mass and g is the acceleration due to gravity. The normal force N is the force exerted by the floor perpendicular to the surface. The friction force opposes motion and is given by f=μN. The minimum force required to move the box occurs when the horizontal component of the applied force equals the maximum static friction force.
Start with person A, who pushes the box at 30° to the horizontal. When pushing, the vertical component of the force acts downward, increasing the normal force. Resolve FA into components:
Horizontal component: FAcos30∘
Vertical component: FAsin30∘ (downward)
The normal force NA is:
NA=mg+FAsin30∘
The friction force is:
fA=μNA=μ(mg+FAsin30∘)
At the point of motion, the horizontal component equals the friction force:
FAcos30∘=μ(mg+FAsin30∘)
Substitute the trigonometric values: cos30∘=23 and sin30∘=21:
FA⋅23=μ(mg+FA⋅21)
Given μ=53, substitute:
FA⋅23=53(mg+2FA)
Divide both sides by 3 (since 3=0):
2FA=51(mg+2FA)
Multiply both sides by 5 to eliminate the denominator:
5⋅2FA=mg+2FA
25FA=mg+2FA
Subtract 2FA from both sides:
25FA−2FA=mg
24FA=mg
2FA=mg
FA=2mg
Now, consider person B, who pulls the box at 60° to the horizontal. When pulling, the vertical component acts upward, reducing the normal force. Resolve FB into components:
Horizontal component: FBcos60∘
Vertical component: FBsin60∘ (upward)
The normal force NB is:
NB=mg−FBsin60∘
The friction force is:
fB=μNB=μ(mg−FBsin60∘)
At the point of motion, the horizontal component equals the friction force:
FBcos60∘=μ(mg−FBsin60∘)
Substitute the trigonometric values: cos60∘=21 and sin60∘=23:
FB⋅21=μ(mg−FB⋅23)
Given μ=53, substitute:
2FB=53(mg−23FB)
Multiply both sides by 10 to eliminate denominators:
10⋅2FB=10⋅53(mg−23FB)
5FB=23(mg−23FB)
Expand the right side:
5FB=23⋅mg−23⋅23FB
Simplify the second term:
23⋅23FB=3⋅3FB=3FB
So:
5FB=23mg−3FB
Add 3FB to both sides:
5FB+3FB=23mg
8FB=23mg
Divide both sides by 2:
4FB=3mg
FB=43mg
Now, find the ratio FBFA:
FBFA=43mg2mg=2mg⋅3mg4=234=32
The ratio FBFA=32, which matches option B.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 3PhysicsSection A • MCQwork energy and power
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A particle is released on a vertical smooth semicircular track from point X so that, OX makes an angle θ from the vertical (see the figure). The normal reaction of the track on the particle vanishes at point Y, where OY makes an angle ϕ with the horizontal. Then:
A
sinϕ=32cosθ
B
sinϕ=43cosθ
C
sinϕ=21cosθ
D
sinϕ=cosθ
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let the potential energy be zero at the center O. The initial height of the particle at point X relative to O is hX=Rcosθ
At point Y, where OY makes an angle ϕ with the horizontal, the height relative to O is hY=Rsinϕ
By the Law of Conservation of Energy between points X and Y:
mgRcosθ=mgRsinϕ+21mv2
v2=2gR(cosθ−sinϕ)…(1)
At point Y, the forces acting on the particle along the radial direction are the normal reaction N and the radial component of weight mgsinϕ. The centripetal force equation is: mgsinϕ−N=Rmv2
The normal reaction vanishes at point Y (N=0). Therefore, mgsinϕ=Rmv2
v2=gRsinϕ…(2)
Equating (1) and (2): gRsinϕ=2gR(cosθ−sinϕ)
sinϕ=2cosθ−2sinϕ
3sinϕ=2cosθ
sinϕ=32cosθ
Q 4PhysicsSection A • MCQrotational motion
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Consider a cylinder of mass M resting on a rough horizontal rug that is pulled out from under it with acceleration 'a' perpendicular to the axis of the cylinder. What is Ffriction at point P? It is assumed that the cylinder does not slip.
A
Ma
B
2Ma
C
3Ma
D
Mg
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
For translational motion of the center of mass O: f=Ma0…(1), where a0 is the linear acceleration of the center of mass.
For rotational motion about the center of mass O: τ=Iα⟹f⋅R=(21MR2)α
f=21MRα…(2)
The condition for no slipping at point P is: a=a0+Rα
a=Mf+M2f
a=M3f
f=3Ma
Q 5PhysicsSection A • MCQrotational motion
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A ball of mass 160 g is thrown up at an angle of 60° to the horizontal at a speed of 10 m s−1. The angular momentum of the ball at the highest point of the trajectory with respect to the point from which the ball is thrown is nearly (g = 10 m s−2)
A
1.73 kg m2 s−1
B
3.46 kg m2 s−1
C
3.0 kg m2 s−1
D
6.0 kg m2 s−1
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To solve this problem, we need to find the angular momentum of a ball at the highest point of its trajectory with respect to the point from which it was thrown. The ball has a mass of 160 g, is thrown at an angle of 60° to the horizontal with a speed of 10 m/s, and gravity is given as 10 m/s². Angular momentum is defined as the cross product of the position vector (from the reference point) and the linear momentum vector, so we'll calculate both at the highest point.
First, convert the mass to kilograms since SI units are required. The mass is 160 g, which is 160 divided by 1000, so mass m=0.160 kg.
The initial velocity is 10 m/s at 60° to the horizontal. We resolve this into horizontal and vertical components:
Horizontal component: ux=ucosθ=10cos60∘
Since cos60∘=21, ux=10×21=5 m/s.
Vertical component: uy=usinθ=10sin60∘
Since sin60∘=23, uy=10×23=53 m/s.
At the highest point of the trajectory, the vertical component of velocity becomes zero (vy=0) because gravity acts downward, and the horizontal component remains unchanged since there is no horizontal acceleration. Therefore, the velocity at the highest point is purely horizontal: v=vx=ux=5 m/s.
The linear momentum p at the highest point is mass times velocity:
p=mv=0.160×5=0.8 kg m/s in the horizontal direction.
So, p=(0.8,0) kg m/s, where the first component is horizontal and the second is vertical.
Next, we find the position vector r of the ball at the highest point relative to the point of projection. This requires the horizontal distance traveled (x) and the maximum height (H).
The maximum height H is given by the formula:
H=2guy2
Substituting the values: H=2×10(53)2=2025×3=2075=3.75 m.
The time taken to reach the highest point t is the time when vertical velocity becomes zero:
t=guy=1053=23 seconds.
The horizontal distance x covered in this time is:
x=ux×t=5×23=253 m.
So, the position vector r=(253,3.75) m.
Angular momentum L with respect to the point of projection is:
L=r×p
In 2D, the magnitude of the cross product is ∣L∣=∣rxpy−rypx∣, where rx and ry are the components of r, and px and py are the components of p.
Here, rx=253, ry=3.75, px=0.8, and py=0.
So, L=(253×0)−(3.75×0.8)=∣0−3.75×0.8∣=∣−3.0∣=3.0 kg m²/s.
Alternatively, using exact fractions:
ry=3.75=415 m (since 3.75=415),
px=0.8=54 kg m/s,
So, L=−(415×54)=−4×515×4=−515=∣−3∣=3 kg m²/s.
The magnitude is 3.0 kg m²/s, and the direction is perpendicular to the plane (negative sign indicates direction, but magnitude is positive).
Comparing with the options:
A. 1.73 kg m² s⁻¹
B. 3.46 kg m² s⁻¹
C. 3.0 kg m² s⁻¹
D. 6.0 kg m² s⁻¹
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 6PhysicsSection A • MCQunits and measurements
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Match List-I (Event) with List-II (Order of the time interval for the happening of the event) and select the correct option from the options given below the lists.
List-I: List-II: (a) The rotation period of earth (i) 105 s (b) Revolution period of earth (ii) 107 s (c) Period of a light wave (iii) 10−15 s (d) Period of a sound wave (iv) 10−3 s
A
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
B
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
C
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
D
(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to match each event from List-I with the appropriate time interval from List-II. Let's recall the approximate values for each event.
Starting with (a) the rotation period of Earth: This is the time for one complete rotation, which is one day. One day has 24 hours. Converting to seconds: 24 hours × 3600 seconds per hour = 86400 seconds. In scientific notation, this is 8.64 × 104 seconds. Since 8.64 is greater than 5, we round up to the next power of 10, giving an order of magnitude of 105 seconds. Therefore, (a) matches with (i).
Next, (b) the revolution period of Earth: This is the time for one orbit around the Sun, which is one year. One year has approximately 365 days. Converting to seconds: 365 days × 24 hours/day × 3600 seconds/hour = 365 × 86400 seconds. Calculating: 365 × 86400 = 31,536,000 seconds. In scientific notation, this is 3.1536 × 107 seconds. The order of magnitude is 107 seconds. Therefore, (b) matches with (ii).
Now, (c) the period of a light wave: Light waves are electromagnetic waves, and for visible light, the frequency is around 1014 Hz to 1015 Hz. Taking a typical frequency of 5 × 1014 Hz, the period T is the reciprocal of frequency: T = 1 / f = 1 / (5 × 1014) = 2 × 10−15 seconds. The order of magnitude is 10−15 seconds. Therefore, (c) matches with (iii).
Finally, (d) the period of a sound wave: Sound waves are audible in the frequency range of 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz. A typical frequency is 1000 Hz (1 kHz). The period T is the reciprocal: T = 1 / 1000 = 0.001 seconds = 10−3 seconds. Even though periods can range from 5 × 10−2 seconds (for 20 Hz) to 5 × 10−5 seconds (for 20,000 Hz), the typical order for common sounds (like 1000 Hz) is 10−3 seconds. Therefore, (d) matches with (iv).
Summarizing the matches:
(a) matches with (i) 105 s
(b) matches with (ii) 107 s
(c) matches with (iii) 10−15 s
(d) matches with (iv) 10−3 s
Comparing with the options:
Option A: (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
Option B: (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
Option C: (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
Option D: (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
Our matches correspond to Option A.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 7PhysicsSection A • MCQgravitation
+4 / -1
The gravitational field in a region is given by g=(5i^+12j^) N kg−1. The change in the gravitational potential energy of a particle of mass 2 kg when it is taken from the origin to a point (7 m, −3 m) is:
A
71 J
B
1358 J
C
2 J
D
1 J
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The gravitational field is given by g=(5i^+12j^) N kg−1. We need to find the change in gravitational potential energy (ΔU) for a particle of mass m=2 kg when it is moved from the origin (0,0) to the point (7 m,−3 m).
The change in gravitational potential energy is given by ΔU=−m∫initialfinalg⋅dr. Since g is constant, the integral simplifies to a path-independent calculation.
Let dr=dxi^+dyj^. Then, g⋅dr=(5i^+12j^)⋅(dxi^+dyj^)=5dx+12dy.
So, the integral becomes:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\int_{(0,0)}^{…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\int_{(0,0)}^{(7,-3)} \vec{g} \cdot d\vec{r} = \int_{(0,0)}^{(7,-3)} (5\,dx + 12\,dy)$
We can compute this by integrating along the x-axis first and then the y-axis. From (0,0) to (7,0), y=0 (so dy=0), and then from (7,0) to (7,−3), x=7 (so dx=0).
First segment: from (0,0) to (7,0):
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\int_{x=0}^{7}…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\int_{x=0}^{7} 5\,dx + \int_{y=0}^{0} 12\,dy = \int_{0}^{7} 5\,dx + 0 = 5 \left[ x \right]_{0}^{7} = 5 \times (7 - 0) = 35$
Second segment: from (7,0) to (7,−3):
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\int_{x=7}^{7}…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\int_{x=7}^{7} 5\,dx + \int_{y=0}^{-3} 12\,dy = 0 + \int_{0}^{-3} 12\,dy = 12 \left[ y \right]_{0}^{-3} = 12 \times (-3 - 0) = 12 \times (-3) = -36$
Adding both segments:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\int_{(0,0)}^{…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\int_{(0,0)}^{(7,-3)} \vec{g} \cdot d\vec{r} = 35 + (-36) = -1 \text{ J kg}^{-1}$
Alternatively, using a straight-line path parameterization: let x=7t, y=−3t, where t goes from 0 to 1. Then dx=7dt, dy=−3dt.
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\vec{g} \cdot …" style="color:#cc0000">$
\vec{g} \cdot d\vec{r} = 5(7\,dt) + 12(-3\,dt) = 35\,dt - 36\,dt = -dt$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\int_{0}^{1} (…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\int_{0}^{1} (-1)\,dt = -1 \left[ t \right]_{0}^{1} = -1 \times (1 - 0) = -1 \text{ J kg}^{-1}$
Both methods give the same result: −1 J kg−1.
Now, the change in potential energy is:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\Delta U = -m …" style="color:#cc0000">$
\Delta U = -m \times \left( \int \vec{g} \cdot d\vec{r} \right) = - (2 \text{ kg}) \times (-1 \text{ J kg}^{-1}) = -2 \times (-1) = 2 \text{ J}$
Hence, the change in gravitational potential energy is 2 J.
Comparing with the options:
A. 71 J
B. 1358 J
C. 2 J
D. 1 J
So, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 8PhysicsSection A • MCQproperties of matter
+4 / -1
The velocity of water in a river is 18 km h−1 near the surface. If the river is 5 m deep, find the shearing stress between the horizontal layers of water. The coefficient of viscosity of water = 10−2 poise.
A
10−4 N m−2
B
10−3 N m−2
C
10−2 N m−2
D
10−1 N m−2
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The velocity of water near the surface is given as 18 km h−1, and the river depth is 5 m. To find the shearing stress between horizontal layers of water, we use Newton's law of viscosity, which states that the shearing stress (τ) is equal to the coefficient of viscosity (η) multiplied by the velocity gradient (dv/dy). The formula is τ = η × (dv/dy).
First, we need to convert the velocity from km h−1 to m s−1 because SI units are required. We know that 1 km = 1000 m and 1 hour = 3600 seconds. So, 18 km h−1 = 18 × (1000 m) / (3600 s) = 18 × (1000 ÷ 3600) m s−1. Simplifying 1000 ÷ 3600 gives 5/18, so 18 × (5/18) = 5 m s−1. Therefore, the velocity at the surface is 5 m s−1.
At the bottom of the river (depth = 5 m), the velocity of water is zero due to the no-slip condition. The velocity gradient dv/dy is the change in velocity per unit depth. Assuming a linear velocity profile from the bottom to the surface, dv/dy = (velocity at surface - velocity at bottom) ÷ depth = (5 m s−1 - 0 m s−1) ÷ 5 m = 5 ÷ 5 = 1 s−1.
The coefficient of viscosity η is given as 10−2 poise. Poise is a CGS unit, so we convert it to SI units (Pa·s or N s m−2). We know that 1 poise = 0.1 Pa·s. Therefore, η = 10−2 poise = 10−2 × 0.1 Pa·s = 10−3 Pa·s = 10−3 N s m−2.
Now, substituting into the formula for shearing stress: τ = η × (dv/dy) = (10−3 N s m−2) × (1 s−1) = 10−3 N m−2.
Comparing with the options, 10−3 N m−2 corresponds to option B. Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 9PhysicsSection A • MCQproperties of matter
+4 / -1
A large number of liquid drops each of radius r coalesce to form a single drop of the radius R. The energy released in the process is converted into kinetic energy of the big drop so formed. The speed of the big drop is (given surface tension of the liquid T, density ρ)
A
ρ2T(r1−R1)
B
ρ6T(r1−R1)
C
ρ4T(r1−R1)
D
ρT(r1−R1)
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given that a large number of liquid drops, each of radius r, coalesce to form a single big drop of radius R. The energy released during coalescence is converted into the kinetic energy of the big drop. We need to find the speed of the big drop, given the surface tension T and density ρ.
First, recall that the surface energy of a liquid drop is given by the surface tension multiplied by the surface area. For a single small drop of radius r, the surface area is 4πr2, so its surface energy is T×4πr2.
Let the number of small drops be n. The volume of one small drop is 34πr3, and the volume of the big drop is 34πR3. Since volume is conserved during coalescence:
n×34πr3=34πR3
Canceling 34π from both sides:
nr3=R3
Solving for n:
n=r3R3
The total surface energy before coalescence is the sum of the surface energies of all small drops:
Factor R2 from the expression inside the parentheses:
Ereleased=T×4πR2(rR−1)
Note that rR−1=rR−r. Also, observe that r1−R1=RrR−r. Therefore:
R−r=Rr(r1−R1)
Substitute this into the expression:
Ereleased=T×4πR2×rR−r=T×4πR2×rRr(r1−R1)
Simplify by canceling r in the numerator and denominator:
Ereleased=T×4πR2×R(r1−R1)=T×4πR3(r1−R1)
This energy is converted into the kinetic energy of the big drop. The kinetic energy is given by 21Mv2, where M is the mass of the big drop and v is its speed.
The mass M is the density times volume:
M=ρ×34πR3
Set the energy released equal to the kinetic energy:
Comparing with the options, this matches option B.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 10PhysicsSection A • MCQproperties of matter
+4 / -1
In the diagram shown, the difference in the two tubes of the manometer is 5 cm, the cross-section of the tube at A and B is 6 mm2 and 10 mm2 respectively. The rate at which water flows through the tube is (g = 10 m s−2)
A
7.5 cc s−1
B
12.5 cc s−1
C
8.0 cc s−1
D
10.0 cc s−1
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The pressure difference between the two points is determined by the height difference Δh=5 cm in the manometer:
ΔP=ρgΔh=1 g/cc×103 cm/s2×5 cm=5×103 dyne/cm2
Using the equation of continuity A1v1=A2v2: 6vA=10vB⟹vA=35vB
Substituting this into Bernoulli's equation, 21ρ(vA2−vB2)=PB−PA:
Q 11PhysicsSection A • MCQthermal properties of matter
+4 / -1
A black coloured solid sphere of radius R and mass M is inside a cavity with vacuum inside. The walls of the cavity are maintained at temperature T0. The initial temperature of the sphere is 3T0. If the specific heat of the material of the sphere varies as αT3 per unit mass with the temperature T of the sphere, where α is a constant, then the time taken for the sphere to cool down to temperature 2T0 will be (σ is Stefan Boltzmann constant)
A
16πR2σMαln(23)
B
16πR2σMαln(316)
C
4πR2σMαln(23)
D
4πR2σMαln(316)
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The sphere cools by radiation since it is in a vacuum. The net power radiated by a black body is given by the Stefan-Boltzmann law. The net power radiated per unit area is σ(T4−T04), where T is the temperature of the sphere and T0 is the surrounding temperature. The surface area of the sphere is 4πR2, so the total net power radiated is:
Pnet=4πR2σ(T4−T04)
This power loss equals the rate of decrease of the internal energy of the sphere. Therefore:
−dtdU=4πR2σ(T4−T04)
The internal energy U depends on the temperature. Given the specific heat per unit mass is αT3, the heat capacity per unit mass is c=αT3. For a mass M, the change in internal energy for a temperature change dT is:
dU=McdT=MαT3dT
Thus, the rate of change of internal energy with time is:
dtdU=MαT3dtdT
Substituting into the power equation:
−MαT3dtdT=4πR2σ(T4−T04)
Rearranging for dt:
dt=−4πR2σ(T4−T04)MαT3dT
To find the time taken for the sphere to cool from 3T0 to 2T0, integrate from T=3T0 to T=2T0. Since the temperature decreases, the negative sign is handled by reversing the limits:
t=∫2T03T04πR2σ(T4−T04)MαT3dT
Factor the denominator using T4−T04=(T2)2−(T02)2=(T2−T02)(T2+T02). However, a substitution simplifies the integral. Let u=T4−T04, then du=4T3dT, so T3dT=4du.
Change the limits: when T=2T0, u=(2T0)4−T04=16T04−T04=15T04. When T=3T0, u=(3T0)4−T04=81T04−T04=80T04.
Reduce 1580 by dividing numerator and denominator by 5:
1580=316
Thus:
t=16πR2σMαln(316)
Comparing with the options, this matches Option B.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 12PhysicsSection A • MCQheat and thermodynamics
+4 / -1
A monoatomic gas is compressed from a volume of 2 m3 to a volume of 1 m3 at a constant pressure of 100 N m2. Then it is heated at constant volume by supplying 150 J of energy. As a result, the internal energy of the gas:
A
Decreases by 50 J
B
Increases by 250 J
C
Decreases by 250 J
D
0 J
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The work done on the gas is W=−P⋅ΔV
W=−100⋅(1−2)=100 J
This 100 J represents energy transferred into the gas through mechanical work.
In the second step, the gas is heated at a constant volume.
Energy supplied (Q) = 150 J. Work done (W) = 0 J (since volume does not change)
ΔU2=150 J
ΔUtotal=Work done on gas+Heat supplied
ΔUtotal=100 J+150 J=250 J
Q 13PhysicsSection A • MCQkinetic theory of gases
+4 / -1
A gas molecule of mass M at the surface of the earth has kinetic energy equivalent to 0 °C. If it were to go up straight without colliding with any other molecules, how high it would rise? Assume that the height attained is much less than the radius of the earth. (kB is Boltzmann constant)
A
2Mg273kB
B
2Mg819kB
C
0
D
3Mg546kB
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The gas molecule has a kinetic energy equivalent to 0 °C. Since temperature in kinetic theory is given in Kelvin, convert 0 °C to Kelvin: 0 °C = 273 K. The average translational kinetic energy of a gas molecule is given by 23kBT, where kB is the Boltzmann constant and T is the absolute temperature. Therefore, the kinetic energy K at the surface is:
K=23kB×273
As the molecule rises straight up without colliding with other molecules, it will lose kinetic energy and gain potential energy. At the maximum height, its kinetic energy becomes zero, and all the initial kinetic energy is converted to potential energy. Assuming the potential energy at the Earth's surface is zero, by conservation of energy:
Initial kinetic energy + Initial potential energy = Final kinetic energy + Final potential energy
K+0=0+Umax
So,
Umax=K=23kB×273
The potential energy at height h above the Earth's surface is Mgh, where M is the mass of the molecule, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is much less than the Earth's radius (as given). Therefore:
Umax=Mgh
Equating the expressions for potential energy:
Mgh=23kB×273
Solving for h:
h=Mg23kB×273
Simplify the fraction:
h=23×Mg273kB
Multiply the constants:
h=2Mg3×273kB
Calculate 3×273:
3×273=819
So,
h=2Mg819kB
Comparing with the given options, this matches option B. Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 14PhysicsSection A • MCQoscillations
+4 / -1
A body is in simple harmonic motion with time period T=0.5 s and amplitude A=1 cm. Find the average velocity in the interval in which it moves from equilibrium position to half of its amplitude.
A
16 cm/s
B
6 cm/s
C
4 cm/s
D
12 cm/s
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Assuming the particle starts from the equilibrium position at t=0, the time taken to reach x=A/2 is found using:
2A=Asin(ωt)
sin(ωt)=21
ωt=6π
t=6ωπ
t=6(2π/T)π=12T
t=120.5 s
The total displacement in this interval is Δx=x2−x1=0.5 cm.
vavg=tΔx
vavg=0.5/120.5
vavg=12 cm/s
Q 15PhysicsSection A • MCQwaves
+4 / -1
The total length of a sonometer wire fixed between two bridges is 110 cm. Now, two more bridges are placed to divide the length of the wire in the ratio 6 : 3 : 2. If the tension in the wire is 400 N and the mass per unit length of the wire is 0.01 kg m−1, then the minimum common frequency with which all the three parts can vibrate, is:
A
1000 Hz
B
1100 Hz
C
100 Hz
D
110 Hz
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The total length of the sonometer wire is 110 cm, which is 110 divided by 100, giving 1.10 meters. The wire is divided into three parts in the ratio 6:3:2. Let the common multiplier be k. So, the lengths are L1=6k, L2=3k, and L3=2k. The sum of these lengths is 6k+3k+2k=11k, which equals 1.10 meters. Therefore, 11k=1.10, and solving for k, we get k=111.10=0.10 meters.
Now, calculate each length:
First part: L1=6×0.10=0.60 meters,
Second part: L2=3×0.10=0.30 meters,
Third part: L3=2×0.10=0.20 meters.
The tension T is 400 N, and the mass per unit length μ is 0.01 kg/m. The fundamental frequency for a stretched string is given by f=2L1μT. Since T and μ are the same for all parts, compute the constant μT:
μT=0.01400=40000=200 m/s.
So, the frequency formula simplifies to f=2L200=L100 Hz.
Now, find the fundamental frequency for each segment:
For the first segment (L1=0.60 m): f1=0.60100=61000=3500 Hz,
For the second segment (L2=0.30 m): f2=0.30100=31000 Hz,
For the third segment (L3=0.20 m): f3=0.20100=500 Hz.
Each segment can vibrate at its fundamental frequency or at harmonics, which are integer multiples of the fundamental frequency. To find the minimum common frequency for all three segments, we need the smallest frequency that is a common multiple of f1, f2, and f3. This means there exist integers n1, n2, and n3 such that:
f=n1⋅f1=n1⋅3500,
f=n2⋅f2=n2⋅31000,
f=n3⋅f3=n3⋅500.
Set the expressions equal:
n1⋅3500=n2⋅31000=n3⋅500.
Multiply through by 3 to eliminate denominators:
500n1=1000n2=1500n3.
From 500n1=1000n2, divide both sides by 500: n1=2n2.
From 1000n2=1500n3, divide both sides by 500: 2n2=3n3.
So, n1=2n2 and 2n2=3n3. Solving for n2 in terms of n3: n2=23n3. Since n2 must be an integer, n3 must be even. Let n3=2k for some integer k≥1. Then:
n2=23×2k=3k,
n1=2×n2=2×3k=6k.
The smallest positive integers occur when k=1:
n3=2×1=2,
n2=3×1=3,
n1=6×1=6.
Now, compute the common frequency f:
Using f=n3⋅f3=2×500=1000 Hz,
or f=n2⋅f2=3×31000=1000 Hz,
or f=n1⋅f1=6×3500=1000 Hz.
Thus, the minimum common frequency is 1000 Hz.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 16PhysicsSection A • MCQelectrostatics
+4 / -1
The electric field in a region of space is given by, E=E0i^+2E0j^ where E0=100 N C−1. The flux of this field through a circular surface of radius 0.02 m parallel to the Y-Z plane is nearly:
A
0.02 N m2 C−1
B
0.005 N m2 C−1
C
0.125 N m2 C−1
D
3.14 N m2 C−1
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The electric field is given by E=E0i^+2E0j^, where E0=100 N C−1. So, substituting the value, E=100i^+2×100j^=100i^+200j^ N C−1.
The circular surface has a radius of 0.02 m and is parallel to the Y-Z plane. Since it is parallel to the Y-Z plane, the normal to the surface is along the X-axis. Therefore, the area vector A is directed along the i^ direction. The magnitude of the area vector is the area of the circle, which is A=πr2.
Substituting the radius r=0.02 m, we get A=π×(0.02)2=π×0.0004=0.0004π m2. Thus, A=0.0004πi^ m2.
The electric flux ϕ through the surface is given by the dot product ϕ=E⋅A. So, ϕ=(100i^+200j^)⋅(0.0004πi^).
Computing the dot product, the i^ components multiply and the j^ component of E multiplies with the j^ component of A, but since A has no j^ component, that term is zero. Therefore:
ϕ=(100×0.0004π)+(200×0)=100×0.0004π=0.04π N m2 C−1.
Now, substituting π≈3.14, we get ϕ=0.04×3.14=0.1256 N m2 C−1. This value is approximately 0.125 N m2 C−1.
Comparing with the options, 0.125 N m2 C−1 matches option C.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 17PhysicsSection A • MCQcapacitor
+4 / -1
The gap between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of area A and distance between plates d, is filled with a dielectric whose relative permittivity varies linearly from ϵ1 at one plate to ϵ2 at the other. The capacitance of the capacitor is:
A
dln(ϵ2/ϵ1)ϵ0(ϵ2−ϵ1)A
B
2dϵ0(ϵ2+ϵ1)A
C
dϵ0(ϵ1+ϵ2)A
D
[dln(ϵ2/ϵ1)]ϵ0A
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
ϵ(x)=ϵ1+(dϵ2−ϵ1)x
dC=dxϵ0ϵ(x)A
Since these slices are stacked between the plates, they are in series. For series combinations, we integrate the reciprocals (1/dC):
C1=∫0ddC1=∫0dϵ0ϵ(x)Adx
C1=ϵ0A1∫0dϵ1+(dϵ2−ϵ1)xdx
C1=ϵ0A1⋅[ϵ2−ϵ1dln(ϵ1+dϵ2−ϵ1x)]0d
C1=ϵ0A(ϵ2−ϵ1)dln(ϵ2/ϵ1)
C=dln(ϵ2/ϵ1)ϵ0(ϵ2−ϵ1)A
Q 18PhysicsSection A • MCQcurrent electricity
+4 / -1
Four bulbs B1, B2, B3 and B4 of 100 W each are connected to 220 V main as shown in the figure. The reading in the ideal ammeter will be:
A
0.90 A
B
1.35 A
C
0.45 A
D
1.80 A
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Each of the four bulbs (B1,B2,B3,B4) is rated at 100 W and connected to a 220 V main. Since they are in parallel across the supply, the current I through each individual bulb is I=VP=220 V100 W=115 A≈0.454 A
The ammeter measures the combined current required to power all subsequent bulbs in the parallel network: B2, B3, and B4.
Iammeter=IB2+IB3+IB4
Iammeter=3×(115 A)=1115 A
Iammeter≈1.35 A
Q 19PhysicsSection A • MCQmagnetism and matter
+4 / -1
An example of a perfect diamagnet is a superconductor. This implies that when a superconductor is put in a magnetic field of intensity B, the magnetic field Bs inside the superconductor will be such that:
A
Bs=B
B
Bs=0
C
Bs<B but Bs=0
D
Bs=−B
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
A superconductor acts as a perfect diamagnet by expelling all internal magnetic flux via the Meissner Effect, resulting in an internal magnetic field (Bs) of zero.
Q 20PhysicsSection A • MCQmoving charges and magnetism
+4 / -1
A square frame of side 10 cm and a long straight wire carrying current 1 A are in the plane of the paper. Starting from close to the wire, the frame moves towards the right with a constant speed of 10 m s−1 (see figure). The e.m.f induced at the time the left arm of the frame is at x = 10 cm from the wire is:
A
0.75 μV
B
1 μV
C
2 μV
D
0.5 μV
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The magnetic field at a distance r from a long straight wire carrying current I is B=2πrμ0I
The e.m.f. induced in a conductor of length l moving with velocity v perpendicular to a magnetic field B is given by e=Blv.
e1=B1lv=(2πxμ0I)av (left arm)
e2=B2lv=(2π(x+a)μ0I)av (right arm)
ε=e1−e2=2πμ0Iav[x1−x+a1]
ε=(2×10−7)×(1)×(0.1)×(10)×[0.11−0.1+0.11]
ε=10−6 V=1μV
Q 21PhysicsSection A • MCQelectromagnetic induction
+4 / -1
The figure shows a circular area of radius R where a uniform magnetic field B is going into the plane of the paper and increasing in magnitude at a constant rate. In that case, which of the following graphs, drawn schematically, correctly shows the variation of the induced electric field E(r)?
A
B
C
D
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
∮E⋅dl=−dtdΦB
Case 1: Inside the Magnetic Field Region (r≤R)
ΦB=B⋅(πr2)
E(2πr)=dtd(B⋅πr2)=πr2dtdB
E(2πr)=πr2⋅k
E=2k⋅r⟹E∝r
Thus, inside the region, the induced electric field increases linearly with distance r, starting from zero at the center.
Case 2: Outside the Magnetic Field Region (r>R)
ΦB=B⋅(πR2)
E(2πr)=dtd(B⋅πR2)=πR2dtdB
E(2πr)=πR2⋅k
E=2kR2⋅r1⟹E∝r1
Thus, outside the region, the induced electric field decreases hyperbolically as r1.
Hence, the graph in option (A) correctly represents this.
Q 22PhysicsSection A • MCQelectromagnetic waves
+4 / -1
If microwaves, X-rays, infrared, gamma rays, ultraviolet, radio waves and visible parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are denoted respectively by M, X, I, G, U, R and V the following is the arrangement in ascending order of the wavelength:
A
I, M, R, U, V, X and G
B
R, M, I, V, U, X and G
C
M, R, V, X, U, G and I
D
G, X, U, V, I, M and R
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To solve this problem, we need to arrange the given parts of the electromagnetic spectrum in ascending order of wavelength, meaning from the shortest wavelength to the longest wavelength. The notations provided are: Microwaves (M), X-rays (X), Infrared (I), Gamma rays (G), Ultraviolet (U), Radio waves (R), and Visible light (V).
First, recall the order of the electromagnetic spectrum based on wavelength. The electromagnetic spectrum is typically ordered from the shortest wavelength (highest energy) to the longest wavelength (lowest energy) as follows: Gamma rays, X-rays, Ultraviolet, Visible light, Infrared, Microwaves, Radio waves.
Now, let's map this order to the given notations:
Gamma rays are denoted by G.
X-rays are denoted by X.
Ultraviolet is denoted by U.
Visible light is denoted by V.
Infrared is denoted by I.
Microwaves are denoted by M.
Radio waves are denoted by R.
Therefore, arranging them in ascending order of wavelength (shortest to longest):
Gamma rays (G) - shortest wavelength
X-rays (X)
Ultraviolet (U)
Visible light (V)
Infrared (I)
Microwaves (M)
Radio waves (R) - longest wavelength
So the sequence is: G, X, U, V, I, M, R.
Now, compare this sequence with the given options:
Option A: I, M, R, U, V, X, G → This starts with Infrared (I), which is not the shortest wavelength. Incorrect.
Option B: R, M, I, V, U, X, G → This starts with Radio waves (R), which has the longest wavelength, so it is descending, not ascending. Incorrect.
Option C: M, R, V, X, U, G, I → This starts with Microwaves (M), which is not the shortest wavelength. Incorrect.
Option D: G, X, U, V, I, M, R → This matches our sequence: Gamma (G), X-rays (X), Ultraviolet (U), Visible (V), Infrared (I), Microwaves (M), Radio (R). Correct.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 23PhysicsSection A • MCQray optics
+4 / -1
The diameter of the objective lens of the microscope makes an angle β at the focus of the microscope. Further, the medium between the object and the lens is the oil of the refractive index n. Then the resolving power of the microscope:
A
Increases with decreasing value of β
B
Increases with increasing value of nsin2β
C
Increases with increasing value of nsin2β1
D
Increases with decreasing value of n
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The resolving power of a microscope is its ability to distinguish two closely spaced objects as separate. It is given by the formula:
RP=λ2nsinθ
where n is the refractive index of the medium, θ is the semi-vertical angle (the angle between the axis of the lens and a ray from the edge of the object to the lens), and λ is the wavelength of light used.
In this problem, the angle β is defined as the angle subtended by the diameter of the objective lens at the focus. This angle β is the full angle, which is twice the semi-vertical angle θ. Therefore, we have:
β=2θorθ=2β
Substituting θ=2β into the resolving power formula:
RP=λ2nsin(2β)
For microscopes, the angles involved are typically small, so we can use the small-angle approximation. For small angles, sin(2β)≈2β. Substituting this approximation:
RP≈λ2n⋅2β=λnβ
Now, consider the expression nsin(2β). For small angles, sin(2β)≈2β, so:
nsin(2β)≈n⋅2β=2nβ
From the approximation RP≈λnβ, we can write:
RP≈λnβ=2λ1⋅(2nβ)∝nsin(2β)
since 2nβ≈nsin(2β). Therefore, the resolving power is proportional to nsin(2β). This means that as nsin(2β) increases, the resolving power increases.
Now, evaluate the options:
Option A: Increases with decreasing value of β. From RP≈λnβ, decreasing β decreases RP, so this is false.
Option B: Increases with increasing value of nsin2β. As derived, RP increases with increasing nsin(2β), so this is true.
Option C: Increases with increasing value of nsin2β1. If nsin2β1 increases, then nsin2β decreases, which would decrease RP, so this is false.
Option D: Increases with decreasing value of n. From RP≈λnβ, decreasing n decreases RP, so this is false.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 24PhysicsSection A • MCQray optics
+4 / -1
A ray of light is incident from a denser to a rarer medium. The critical angle for total internal reflection is θiC and Brewster's angle of incidence is θiB, such that sinθiBsinθiC=η=1.28. The relative refractive index of the two media is:
A
0.4
B
0.2
C
0.9
D
0.8
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given that a ray of light is incident from a denser medium to a rarer medium. The critical angle for total internal reflection is denoted by θiC and Brewster's angle of incidence is θiB. The ratio sinθiBsinθiC=η=1.28 is provided. We need to find the relative refractive index, which is the ratio of the refractive index of the rarer medium to that of the denser medium, denoted as μ=μdμr, where μd is the refractive index of the denser medium and μr is that of the rarer medium.
First, recall the formula for the critical angle θiC. When light travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium, total internal reflection occurs at the critical angle, given by:
sinθiC=μdμr=μ
So, we have:
sinθiC=μ(Equation 1)
Next, Brewster's angle θiB is the angle of incidence at which the reflected light is completely polarized. For light going from denser to rarer medium, Brewster's angle is given by:
tanθiB=μdμr=μ
So, we have:
tanθiB=μ(Equation 2)
The given ratio is sinθiBsinθiC=η=1.28. Substituting from Equation 1, sinθiC=μ, so:
sinθiBμ=1.28(Equation 3)
From Equation 2, tanθiB=μ. We need to express sinθiB in terms of μ. Using the trigonometric identity tanθ=cosθsinθ and sin2θ+cos2θ=1, we can write:
Let θ=θiB, so tanθ=μ. Then:
cosθsinθ=μ
Therefore, sinθ=μcosθ. Squaring both sides:
sin2θ=μ2cos2θ
Substituting sin2θ=1−cos2θ:
1−cos2θ=μ2cos2θ
Rearranging terms:
1=cos2θ+μ2cos2θ
1=cos2θ(1+μ2)
Solving for cos2θ:
cos2θ=1+μ21
Now, sin2θ=1−cos2θ=1−1+μ21=1+μ21+μ2−1=1+μ2μ2. Taking the positive square root (since θiB is an acute angle):
sinθiB=1+μ2μ(Equation 4)
Substituting Equation 4 into Equation 3:
1+μ2μμ=1.28
Simplifying the expression:
μ×μ1+μ2=1+μ2=1.28
So, we have:
1+μ2=1.28
Squaring both sides to eliminate the square root:
1+μ2=(1.28)2
Calculating (1.28)2:
1.28×1.28=1.6384
So:
1+μ2=1.6384
Subtracting 1 from both sides:
μ2=1.6384−1=0.6384
Taking the square root:
μ=0.6384
We know that 0.82=0.64, which is close to 0.6384. Calculating more precisely, 0.7992=(0.8−0.001)2=0.82−2×0.8×0.001+(0.001)2=0.64−0.0016+0.000001=0.638401, which is approximately 0.6384. Thus, μ≈0.799, which rounds to 0.8. Verifying with μ=0.8:
1+(0.8)2=1+0.64=1.64≈1.64
Since 1.64=100164=10164=10241=541. Approximating 41≈6.403, so 56.403=1.2806, which is approximately 1.28. Thus, μ=0.8 satisfies the equation.
Comparing with the options:
A. 0.4
B. 0.2
C. 0.9
D. 0.8
The relative refractive index is 0.8, which corresponds to Option D. The problem states that the correct answer is Option 4, and since D is the fourth option, it matches.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 25PhysicsSection A • MCQwave optics
+4 / -1
In Young's double-slit experiment, the distance between the two identical slits is 6.1 times larger than the slit width. Then the number of intensity maxima observed within the central maximum of the single-slit diffraction pattern is:
A
3
B
6
C
24
D
12
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
In Young's double-slit experiment, we have two identical slits, and the distance between the centers of these slits is denoted by d. The width of each slit is denoted by a. According to the problem, the distance between the slits is 6.1 times larger than the slit width, so we can write:
d=6.1a
We need to find the number of intensity maxima observed within the central maximum of the single-slit diffraction pattern. The central maximum of the single-slit diffraction pattern is the region between the first minima on either side of the central peak. For a single slit of width a, the first minimum occurs at an angle θ where:
asinθ=λ
Here, λ is the wavelength of light. Therefore, the angular positions of the first minima are at sinθ=±aλ. The central maximum extends from sinθ=−aλ to sinθ=aλ.
In the double-slit experiment, the interference maxima occur at angles where the path difference is an integer multiple of the wavelength. The condition for the m-th interference maximum is:
dsinθ=mλ
where m is an integer (the order of the maximum). To find which interference maxima lie within the central maximum of the diffraction pattern, we require that sinθ satisfies:
−aλ≤sinθ≤aλ
Substituting sinθ=dmλ from the interference condition, we get:
−aλ≤dmλ≤aλ
Since λ>0, we can divide all parts of the inequality by λ:
−a1≤dm≤a1
Multiplying through by d:
−ad≤m≤ad
Given that d=6.1a, we substitute ad=6.1:
−6.1≤m≤6.1
Since m must be an integer, the possible values of m are:
m=−6,−5,−4,−3,−2,−1,0,1,2,3,4,5,6
This gives 13 values: from −6 to 6 inclusive.
However, the central interference maximum at m=0 is the brightest and is considered separately in some contexts. The problem asks for the number of intensity maxima within the central maximum of the single-slit diffraction pattern, and in many interpretations, this excludes the central interference maximum (m=0) but includes all other maxima inside the central diffraction envelope. Therefore, we exclude m=0 and count the remaining maxima.
The values excluding m=0 are:
m=−6,−5,−4,−3,−2,−1,1,2,3,4,5,6
This gives 12 maxima: six on the left side (m=−6 to m=−1) and six on the right side (m=1 to m=6).
It is important to verify that these maxima are visible and not suppressed by diffraction minima. The diffraction minima occur at asinθ=nλ for n=±1,±2,±3,…. The interference maxima at dsinθ=mλ coincide with diffraction minima when ad=nm, which is 16.1=1061. For m and n integers, this would require m to be a multiple of 61 and n a multiple of 10. Within the range ∣m∣≤6, the only possible m is 0 (when n=0), but n=0 corresponds to the central maximum, not a minimum. Thus, no interference maximum in this range coincides with a diffraction minimum, and all 12 maxima are visible within the central diffraction envelope.
Therefore, the number of intensity maxima observed within the central maximum of the single-slit diffraction pattern, excluding the central interference maximum, is 12.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 26PhysicsSection A • MCQdual nature of matter and radiation
+4 / -1
Match List-I (Experiment performed) with List-II (Phenomena discovered/associated) and select the correct option from the options given below the lists.
List-I: List-II: (a) Davisson and Germer experiment (i) Wave nature of electrons (b) Millikan's oil drop experiment (ii) Charge of an electron (c) Rutherford experiment (iii) Quantisation of energy levels (d) Franck-Hertz experiment (iv) Existence of the nucleus
A
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
B
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
C
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
D
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let us solve this matching question step by step by recalling the key discoveries associated with each experiment.
First, consider experiment (a) Davisson and Germer experiment. In this experiment, electrons were scattered by a nickel crystal, and an interference pattern was observed. This interference pattern is characteristic of waves, demonstrating that electrons exhibit wave-like behavior. Therefore, Davisson and Germer experiment is associated with the wave nature of electrons, which corresponds to List-II option (i).
Next, experiment (b) Millikan's oil drop experiment. Here, tiny oil droplets were suspended in an electric field, and their charges were measured. The charges were always found to be integer multiples of a fundamental value, which is the charge of a single electron. Thus, Millikan's experiment determined the charge of an electron, matching List-II option (ii).
Now, experiment (c) Rutherford experiment. This involved firing alpha particles at a thin gold foil. Most particles passed through, but some were deflected at large angles, indicating a dense, positively charged core in the atom. This led to the discovery of the atomic nucleus. Hence, Rutherford experiment corresponds to List-II option (iv) Existence of the nucleus.
Finally, experiment (d) Franck-Hertz experiment. Electrons were accelerated through mercury vapor, and collisions showed discrete energy losses. This proved that atoms absorb energy in specific quantized amounts, confirming quantized energy levels. Therefore, Franck-Hertz experiment matches List-II option (iii) Quantisation of energy levels.
Summarizing the matches:
(a) Davisson and Germer experiment → (i) Wave nature of electrons
(b) Millikan's oil drop experiment → (ii) Charge of an electron
(c) Rutherford experiment → (iv) Existence of the nucleus
(d) Franck-Hertz experiment → (iii) Quantisation of energy levels
A piece of wood from a recently cut tree shows 20 decays per minute. A wooden piece of the same size placed in a museum (obtained from a tree cut many years back) shows 2 decays per minute. If the half-life of C14 is 5730 years, then the age of the wooden piece placed in the museum is approximately: [This question was awarded a bonus and proper correction was made to avoid that]
A
10439 years
B
39049 years
C
19042 years
D
13094 years
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The activity of carbon-14 decays exponentially over time. The activity A at time t is given by A=A0e−λt, where A0 is the initial activity, λ is the decay constant, and t is the time elapsed.
For the recently cut tree, the activity is 20 decays per minute, which is A0. For the wooden piece in the museum, the activity is 2 decays per minute, which is A. The ratio of the activities is:
A0A=202=101
Substituting into the decay formula:
101=e−λt
Taking the natural logarithm on both sides:
ln(101)=ln(e−λt)
ln(1)−ln(10)=−λt
0−ln(10)=−λt
−ln(10)=−λt
Multiplying both sides by -1:
ln(10)=λt
Solving for t:
t=λln(10)
The decay constant λ is related to the half-life T1/2 by λ=T1/2ln(2). Given T1/2=5730 years for carbon-14:
λ=5730ln(2)
Substituting this into the expression for t:
t=5730ln(2)ln(10)=ln(10)×ln(2)5730
Using approximate values ln(10)≈2.303 and ln(2)≈0.693:
Q 28PhysicsSection A • MCQsemiconductor devices and logic gates
+4 / -1
Given, A and B are input terminals. Logic 1 is > 5 V, Logic 0 is < 1 V. Which logic gate operation, the following circuit does?
Note: This question was awarded a bonus. C option changed.
A
OR gate
B
NOR gate
C
Output will always be one
D
XOR gate
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
1. Both inputs are LOW: A=0 V (Logic 0), B=0 V (Logic 0)
Since the inputs are at 0 V and the top node is pulled up toward Vcc=6 V, both diodes face a positive voltage from anode to cathode. This means both diodes are forward-biased (ON) and act as short circuits to ground. The output node Vout is pulled down directly to the input voltage level through the small 50Ω resistor.
Vout≈0 V⟹Logic 0
2. One input is HIGH, one is LOW: A=6 V (Logic 1), B=0 V (Logic 0)
For the terminal at 6 V (A), the cathode is at 6 V. Since the supply voltage Vcc is also 6 V, the anode cannot be higher than the cathode. Diode A becomes reverse-biased (OFF). For the terminal at 0 V (B), the diode remains forward-biased (ON). Current flows from Vcc through diode B to ground. The output node Vout is still pulled down to the 0 V level of input B.
Vout≈0 V⟹Logic 0
3. Both inputs are HIGH: A=6 V (Logic 1), B=6 V (Logic 1)
With both cathodes held at 6 V (equal to Vcc), neither diode can conduct current forward. Both diodes are reverse-biased (OFF) and act as open circuits. With the path to the input terminals blocked, no current flows through the circuit down to the 10 kΩ pull-down resistor to ground. The output node Vout is tied directly up to the supply voltage line.
Vout=Vcc=6 V⟹Logic 1
Q 29PhysicsSection A • MCQcommunication systems
+4 / -1
Long-range radio transmission is possible when the radio waves are reflected from the ionosphere. For this to happen the frequency of the radio waves must be in the range:
A
150 − 500 kHz
B
80 − 150 MHz
C
1 − 3 MHz
D
8 − 25 MHz
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Long-range radio transmission via ionospheric reflection depends on the radio waves having a frequency that allows them to be reflected by the ionosphere rather than penetrating it or being absorbed. The ionosphere's ability to reflect waves is determined by the maximum electron density, Nmax, in electrons per cubic meter (m⁻³). The critical frequency fc, which is the maximum frequency that can be reflected, is given by the formula:
fc=9Nmax
The electron density Nmax varies with atmospheric conditions, time of day, and solar activity. Typically, Nmax ranges from about 1010 to 1012 m⁻³. Let's calculate the critical frequencies for these extremes.
For Nmax=1010 m⁻³:
fc=9×1010=9×105 Hz=900 kHz
For Nmax=1012 m⁻³:
fc=9×1012=9×106 Hz=9 MHz
However, during periods of high solar activity, Nmax can reach higher values, such as 8×1012 m⁻³. For this density:
fc=9×8×1012=9×8×106=9×22×106
Calculating 8=22≈2×1.414=2.828:
fc≈9×2.828×106=25.452×106 Hz≈25 MHz
Thus, the critical frequency can extend up to approximately 25 MHz under extreme conditions. For reflection to occur, the frequency must be less than or equal to fc. However, absorption in the lower ionospheric layers (like the D layer during the day) affects lower frequencies. Frequencies below about 5 MHz experience significant daytime absorption, limiting their use for long-range transmission. Therefore, the optimal range avoids severe absorption while staying below the maximum critical frequency.
Now, evaluating the options:
Option A (150-500 kHz): This range is too low. Although reflection may occur at night when D-layer absorption decreases, daytime absorption is high, and long-range transmission is unreliable.
Option B (80-150 MHz): These frequencies are in the VHF band and exceed typical critical frequencies (≤ 25 MHz). They penetrate the ionosphere and are not reflected, making them unsuitable.
Option C (1-3 MHz): This lower HF range suffers from strong daytime D-layer absorption. While usable at night, it is not reliable for consistent long-range communication.
Option D (8-25 MHz): This HF range minimizes daytime absorption (frequencies > 5 MHz) and includes frequencies up to the maximum critical frequency (25 MHz under extreme conditions). It aligns with the typical ionospheric reflection range for long-range transmission.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 30PhysicsSection A • MCQunits and measurements
+4 / -1
In an experiment to determine the gravitational acceleration g of a place with the help of a simple pendulum, the measured time period squared is plotted against the string length of the pendulum in the figure. What is the value of g at the place?
A
10.0 m s−2
B
9.87 m s−2
C
9.91 m s−2
D
9.81 m s−2
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
T=2πgL
T2=(g4π2)L
This equation represents a straight line passing through the origin in a T2 vs L graph, where the slope is m=g4π2
m=ΔLΔT2=2.0−1.08.0−4.0=4 s2/m
g4π2=4
g=π2
g≈9.87 m s−2
Q 31ChemistrySection A • MCQatomic structure
+4 / -1
The ionization energy of gaseous Na atoms is 495.5 kJ mol−1. The lowest possible frequency of light that ionizes a sodium atom is (h = 6.626×10−34 Js, NA = 6.022×1023 mol−1)
A
1.24×1015 s−1
B
7.50×104 s−1
C
4.76×1014 s−1
D
3.15×1015 s−1
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The ionization energy given is 495.5 kJ mol⁻¹ for gaseous Na atoms. This energy is required to remove an electron from one mole of sodium atoms. However, to find the lowest frequency of light that ionizes a single sodium atom, we need the ionization energy per atom.
First, convert the ionization energy from kJ mol⁻¹ to J mol⁻¹. Since 1 kJ = 1000 J, multiply by 1000:
495.5kJ mol−1=495.5×1000J mol−1=495500J mol−1.
Now, to find the energy per atom, divide by Avogadro's number, NA=6.022×1023 mol⁻¹, which gives the number of atoms per mole:
Energy per atom=6.022×1023atoms mol−1495500J mol−1.
Simplify the expression:
Energy per atom=6.022×1023495500J atom−1.
Calculate the numerical value. First, express 495500 in scientific notation: 495500=4.955×105. Then:
Energy per atom=6.022×10234.955×105=6.0224.955×105−23=6.0224.955×10−18.
Divide 4.955 by 6.022:
6.0224.955≈0.8225.
So,
Energy per atom≈0.8225×10−18J atom−1=8.225×10−19J atom−1.
The lowest frequency of light that can ionize the atom corresponds to a photon with energy equal to the ionization energy per atom. The energy of a photon is given by E=hν, where h is Planck's constant and ν is the frequency. Therefore,
ν=hE.
Given h=6.626×10−34 J s, substitute the values:
ν=6.626×10−348.225×10−19s−1.
Simplify:
ν=6.6268.225×10−19−(−34)=6.6268.225×1015.
Divide 8.225 by 6.626:
6.6268.225≈1.2413.
So,
ν≈1.2413×1015s−1.
Rounding to three significant figures, as in the options, gives 1.24×1015 s⁻¹.
Comparing with the options:
A. 1.24×1015 s⁻¹
B. 7.50×104 s⁻¹
C. 4.76×1014 s⁻¹
D. 3.15×1015 s⁻¹
The value 1.24×1015 s⁻¹ matches option A.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 32ChemistrySection A • MCQperiodic classification of elements
+4 / -1
Which one of the following has the largest ionic radius?
A
F−
B
B3+
C
O2−
D
Li+
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
For isoelectronic species (ions/atoms with the same number of electrons), the ionic radius is inversely proportional to the atomic number (Z).
As the nuclear charge increases, the attraction on the electrons increases, causing the ionic radius to decrease.
Therefore, atomic radii: O2−>F−>Li+>B3+
Q 33ChemistrySection A • MCQchemical bonding and molecular structure
+4 / -1
Which one of the following molecules is paramagnetic?
A
N2
B
O3
C
CO
D
NO
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To determine which molecule is paramagnetic, we need to check for unpaired electrons in their molecular orbital configurations. Paramagnetic substances have at least one unpaired electron.
Let's analyze each option step by step:
Option A: N₂
Nitrogen atom has atomic number 7. Each N atom has 7 electrons, so N₂ has 14 electrons. The molecular orbital configuration for N₂ (considering valence electrons: 2s and 2p orbitals) is: σ(2s)2σ∗(2s)2π(2px)2π(2py)2σ(2pz)2
All electrons are paired (no unpaired electrons). Thus, N₂ is diamagnetic.
Option B: O₃
Ozone (O₃) has three oxygen atoms. Each oxygen atom has 8 electrons, so total electrons = 3 × 8 = 24. O₃ has a bent structure with resonance. The central oxygen is sp² hybridized. The molecule has 18 valence electrons (6 per oxygen atom). In ozone, all electrons are paired in the molecular orbitals due to resonance stabilization. O₃ is diamagnetic.
Option C: CO
Carbon monoxide has carbon (atomic number 6) and oxygen (atomic number 8). Total electrons = 6 + 8 = 14. CO is isoelectronic with N₂ (14 electrons). Its molecular orbital configuration is: σ(2s)2σ∗(2s)2π(2px)2π(2py)2σ(2pz)2
All electrons are paired. Thus, CO is diamagnetic.
Option D: NO
Nitric oxide has nitrogen (atomic number 7) and oxygen (atomic number 8). Total electrons = 7 + 8 = 15. The molecular orbital configuration for NO is: σ(2s)2σ∗(2s)2σ(2pz)2π(2px)2π(2py)2π∗(2px)1
Here, the last electron occupies the π* orbital alone, resulting in one unpaired electron. Therefore, NO is paramagnetic.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 34ChemistrySection A • MCQstates of matter
+4 / -1
Sulphur dioxide and oxygen were allowed to diffuse through a porous partition. 20 dm3 of SO2 diffuses through the porous partition in 60 seconds. The volume of O2 in dm3 which diffuses under the similar condition in 30 seconds will be (atomic mass of sulphur = 32 u):
A
28.2
B
10.0
C
14.1
D
7.09
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
According to Graham's law of diffusion, the rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass. The rate can be expressed as the volume diffused per unit time. For two gases, SO₂ and O₂, under similar conditions, the relationship is given by:
RateO2RateSO2=MSO2MO2
where Rate = Volume / Time, and M is the molar mass.
Given:
Volume of SO₂ diffused, VSO2=20dm3
Time for SO₂ diffusion, tSO2=60seconds
Time for O₂ diffusion, tO2=30seconds
Volume of O₂ diffused, VO2=?dm3 (to be found)
First, calculate the molar masses:
Atomic mass of S = 32 u, O = 16 u
Molar mass of SO₂, MSO2=32+2×16=32+32=64u
Molar mass of O₂, MO2=2×16=32u
Using Graham's law:
RateO2RateSO2=MSO2MO2
Substitute the rate expressions:
tO2VO2tSO2VSO2=MSO2MO2
Plug in the known values:
30VO26020=6432
Simplify the left side:
6020=31
So:
30VO231=31×VO230=3VO230=VO210
Simplify the right side:
6432=21=21
Now the equation is:
VO210=21
Solve for VO2:
Cross-multiply:
10×2=VO2
So:
VO2=102
Calculate the numerical value. 2≈1.414:
VO2=10×1.414=14.14≈14.1dm3
Hence, the volume of O₂ that diffuses in 30 seconds is 14.1 dm³.
So, the answer is Option C.
Q 35ChemistrySection A • MCQchemical equilibrium
+4 / -1
For the decomposition of the compound, represented as NH2COONH4(s) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + CO2(g), the Kp = 2.9×10−5 atm3. If the reaction is started with 1 mole of the compound, the total pressure at equilibrium would be:
A
7.66×10−2 atm
B
38.8×10−2 atm
C
5.82×10−2 atm
D
1.94×10−2 atm
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given the decomposition reaction: NH2COONH4(s) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + CO2(g) with Kp = 2.9×10−5 atm3. We start with 1 mole of NH2COONH4(s). Since the solid does not affect the equilibrium constant, we focus on the gaseous products.
Let the number of moles of NH2COONH4 that decompose be x. At equilibrium:
Moles of NH3 produced = 2x
Moles of CO2 produced = x
Total moles of gas, ntotal=2x+x=3x
Let the total pressure at equilibrium be P atm. The partial pressures are:
Partial pressure of NH3, PNH3=(3x2x)P=32P
Partial pressure of CO2, PCO2=(3xx)P=31P
The equilibrium constant Kp is given by:
Kp=(PNH3)2×(PCO2)
Substituting the partial pressures:
Kp=(32P)2×(31P)=94P2×31P=274P3
Given that Kp = 2.9×10−5 atm3, we set up the equation:
Compute 10−4/3=10−1.3333≈0.046416 (since 10−4/3=1/104/3 and 104/3≈21.5443, so 1/21.5443≈0.046416).
Now, compute the cube root of 1.9575. We know that 1.253=1.25×1.25=1.5625, then 1.5625×1.25=1.953125, which is close to 1.9575. Adjusting slightly, 1.2513=1.251×1.251=1.565001, then 1.565001×1.251≈1.957816251, which is very close to 1.9575. So (1.9575)1/3≈1.251.
Thus:
P≈1.251×0.046416≈0.05806
So:
P≈0.05806 atm=5.806×10−2 atm
Comparing with the options:
A: 7.66×10−2 atm
B: 38.8×10−2 atm
C: 5.82×10−2 atm
D: 1.94×10−2 atm
The value 5.806×10−2 atm is closest to option C (5.82×10−2 atm). To verify, let's check with option C:
If P=5.82×10−2=0.0582 atm, then:
P3=(0.0582)3=0.0582×0.0582=0.00338724, then 0.00338724×0.0582≈0.00019713768=1.9713768×10−4
This is very close to the given Kp = 2.9×10−5 (difference due to rounding).
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 36ChemistrySection A • MCQionic equilibrium
+4 / -1
Zirconium phosphate [Zr3(PO4)4] dissociates into three zirconium cations of charge +4 and four phosphate anions of charge −3. If molar solubility of zirconium phosphate is denoted by s and its solubility product by Ksp then which of the following relationship between s and Ksp is correct?
A
S={Ksp/6912}7
B
S={Ksp/144}1/7
C
S={Ksp/(6912)1/7}
D
S=(Ksp/6912)1/7
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The dissociation reaction for zirconium phosphate, Zr₃(PO₄)₄, is given by:
Zr3(PO4)4(s)→3Zr4+(aq)+4PO43−(aq)
Let the molar solubility of zirconium phosphate be denoted by s mol/L. This means that when s moles of Zr₃(PO₄)₄ dissolve per liter of solution, the concentration of Zr⁴⁺ ions produced is 3s mol/L (since each formula unit produces 3 zirconium ions), and the concentration of PO₄³⁻ ions produced is 4s mol/L (since each formula unit produces 4 phosphate ions).
The solubility product constant, Ksp, is defined as the product of the concentrations of the ions raised to their respective stoichiometric coefficients. Therefore, for this reaction:
Ksp=[Zr4+]3×[PO43−]4
Substituting the concentrations in terms of s:
Ksp=(3s)3×(4s)4
Now, compute each part separately. First, (3s)3:
(3s)3=33×s3=27s3
Next, (4s)4:
(4s)4=44×s4=256s4
Now, multiply these together:
Ksp=27s3×256s4
Combine the constants and the powers of s. The constants are 27×256, and the powers of s are s3×s4=s3+4=s7. So:
Ksp=(27×256)×s7
Calculate 27×256. Break it down: 20×256=5120, and 7×256=1792. Adding these gives:
5120+1792=6912
Thus:
Ksp=6912⋅s7
To find the relationship between s and Ksp, solve for s:
s7=6912Ksp
Taking the seventh root of both sides:
s=(6912Ksp)1/7
Now, compare this with the given options:
Option A: S={Ksp/6912}7 → This is s=(6912Ksp)7, which is incorrect.
Option B: S={Ksp/144}1/7 → The denominator is 144 instead of 6912, so incorrect.
Option C: S={Ksp/(6912)1/7} → This is s=69121/7Ksp, which is not equivalent.
Option D: S=(Ksp/6912)1/7 → This matches exactly: s=(6912Ksp)1/7.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 37ChemistrySection A • MCQredox reactions
+4 / -1
How many electrons are involved in the following redox reaction? Cr2O72− + Fe2+ + C2O42− → Cr3+ + Fe3+ + CO2 (Unbalanced)
A
6
B
5
C
3
D
4
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To determine the number of electrons involved in the redox reaction, we first need to balance the reaction since it is given unbalanced. The reaction is:
Cr2O72−+Fe2++C2O42−→Cr3++Fe3++CO2
We start by identifying the oxidation states of each element:
In Cr2O72−, oxygen is −2. Let the oxidation state of Cr be x. Then 2x+7(−2)=−2, so 2x−14=−2, giving 2x=12, and x=+6. Thus, Cr is +6.
In Fe2+, iron is +2.
In C2O42−, oxygen is −2. Let the oxidation state of C be y. Then 2y+4(−2)=−2, so 2y−8=−2, giving 2y=6, and y=+3. Thus, each carbon is +3.
In Cr3+, chromium is +3.
In Fe3+, iron is +3.
In CO2, oxygen is −2, so carbon is +4.
Now, observe the changes in oxidation states:
Chromium is reduced from +6 to +3, gaining electrons.
Iron is oxidized from +2 to +3, losing electrons.
Carbon in oxalate is oxidized from +3 to +4, losing electrons.
We split the reaction into half-reactions:
Reduction: Cr2O72−→Cr3+
Oxidation: Fe2+→Fe3+ and C2O42−→CO2
Balance the reduction half-reaction in acidic medium:
Balance Cr atoms: Cr2O72−→2Cr3+.
Balance oxygen by adding water: Cr2O72−→2Cr3++7H2O.
Balance hydrogen by adding H⁺: Cr2O72−+14H+→2Cr3++7H2O.
Balance charge: Left side charge is −2+14(+1)=+12, right side is 2(+3)=+6. Add 6 electrons to the left: Cr2O72−+14H++6e−→2Cr3++7H2O.
So, reduction involves 6 electrons per Cr2O72− ion.
Balance the oxidation half-reactions:
For iron: Fe2+→Fe3++e−. Each Fe2+ loses 1 electron.
For oxalate: C2O42−→2CO2. Oxidation state change: Two carbons go from +3 to +4, so total loss of 2 electrons. Balance atoms and charge: Left has charge −2, right has charge 0. Add 2 electrons to the right: C2O42−→2CO2+2e−. Each C2O42− loses 2 electrons.
Now, combine the half-reactions. Let the number of Cr2O72− ions be a, Fe2+ ions be b, and C2O42− ions be c.
Electron balance: Electrons gained = electrons lost. Reduction gains 6a electrons. Oxidation loses b electrons from iron and 2c electrons from oxalate. So:
6a=b+2c
The balanced reaction must include H⁺ and H₂O. Using the reduction half-reaction, for each Cr2O72−, we need 14H⁺ and produce 7H₂O. The full reaction is:
Oxygen: Left has 7a+4c atoms (from Cr2O72− and C2O42−), right has 7a from H₂O and 4c from CO₂ (since each CO₂ has 2 oxygen atoms, and 2c CO₂ has 4c oxygen atoms). So 7a+4c=7a+4c, balanced.
Hydrogen: Left has 14a H atoms from H⁺, right has 14a H atoms from 7a H₂O, balanced.
Charge: Left charge is −2a+2b−2c+14a=12a+2b−2c. Right charge is 2a×3+b×3=6a+3b. Set equal: 12a+2b−2c=6a+3b, simplifying to 6a−b−2c=0, or b+2c=6a, which matches the electron balance equation.
Solve b+2c=6a for positive integers a, b, c. Since the unbalanced reaction shows one of each reactant, we find minimal solutions:
If a=1, then b+2c=6. Possible pairs: (b,c)=(4,1) or (2,2).
Both are valid balanced equations:
For (a,b,c)=(1,4,1): Cr2O72−+4Fe2++C2O42−+14H+→2Cr3++4Fe3++2CO2+7H2O
For (a,b,c)=(1,2,2): Cr2O72−+2Fe2++2C2O42−+14H+→2Cr3++2Fe3++4CO2+7H2O
In both cases, the total electrons transferred are 6, as reduction gains 6 electrons and oxidation loses 6 electrons:
Case 1: Iron loses 4×1=4 electrons, oxalate loses 1×2=2 electrons, total 6.
Case 2: Iron loses 2×1=2 electrons, oxalate loses 2×2=4 electrons, total 6.
The number of electrons involved is always 6 per mole of Cr2O72−, regardless of the coefficients chosen for the reducing agents.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 38ChemistrySection A • MCQredox reactions
+4 / -1
Consider the reaction: H2SO3(aq) + Sn(aq)4+ + H2O(l) → Sn(aq)2+ + HSO4(aq)− + 3H(aq)+. Which of the following statements is correct?
A
Sn4+ is the oxidizing agent because it undergoes oxidation
B
Sn4+ is the reducing agent because it undergoes oxidation
C
H2SO3 is the reducing agent because it undergoes reduction
D
H2SO3 is the reducing agent because it undergoes oxidation
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
First, we need to understand the reaction: H2SO3(aq)+Sn4+(aq)+H2O(l)−>Sn2+(aq)+HSO4−(aq)+3H+(aq). To determine which statement is correct, we must identify the oxidizing and reducing agents by analyzing the changes in oxidation numbers.
Recall the rules for oxidation numbers: Hydrogen (H) is usually +1, Oxygen (O) is usually -2, and the sum of oxidation numbers in a neutral compound is zero, while in an ion, it equals the charge. Let's assign oxidation numbers to each element in the reactants and products.
Starting with the reactants:
In H2SO3: Hydrogen (H) is +1 (since it's combined with non-metals). Let the oxidation number of Sulfur (S) be x. Oxygen (O) is -2. So, 2×(+1)+x+3×(−2)=0. Simplifying: 2+x−6=0 → x−4=0 → x=+4. Thus, S in H2SO3 has an oxidation number of +4.
In Sn4+: The ion has a +4 charge, so Sn has an oxidation number of +4.
In H2O: Hydrogen is +1, Oxygen is -2.
Now for the products:
In Sn2+: The ion has a +2 charge, so Sn has an oxidation number of +2.
In HSO4−: Hydrogen (H) is +1. Oxygen (O) is -2. Let the oxidation number of Sulfur (S) be y. The ion has a -1 charge. So, +1+y+4×(−2)=−1. Simplifying: 1+y−8=−1 → y−7=−1 → y=+6. Thus, S in HSO4− has an oxidation number of +6.
In H+: Hydrogen has an oxidation number of +1.
Now, compare the oxidation numbers:
Sulfur (S): From +4 in H2SO3 to +6 in HSO4−. This is an increase of +2, indicating oxidation (loss of electrons).
Tin (Sn): From +4 in Sn4+ to +2 in Sn2+. This is a decrease of -2, indicating reduction (gain of electrons).
Since Sulfur in H2SO3 is oxidized, H2SO3 is the reducing agent (it causes reduction by being oxidized). Since Tin in Sn4+ is reduced, Sn4+ is the oxidizing agent (it causes oxidation by being reduced).
Now, evaluate the options:
Option A: "Sn^{4+} is the oxidizing agent because it undergoes oxidation" → Incorrect, because Sn^{4+} undergoes reduction, not oxidation.
Option B: "Sn^{4+} is the reducing agent because it undergoes oxidation" → Incorrect, because Sn^{4+} undergoes reduction, and it is not the reducing agent.
Option C: "H2SO3 is the reducing agent because it undergoes reduction" → Incorrect, because H2SO3 undergoes oxidation, not reduction.
Option D: "H2SO3 is the reducing agent because it undergoes oxidation" → Correct, as H2SO3 undergoes oxidation and is therefore the reducing agent.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 39ChemistrySection A • MCQchemical bonding and molecular structure
+4 / -1
Amongst LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2 and MgCl2 the compounds with the greatest and the least ionic character, respectively are:
A
MgCl2 and BeCl2
B
RbCl and MgCl2
C
LiCl and RbCl
D
RbCl and BeCl2
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To determine the compounds with the greatest and least ionic character among LiCl, RbCl, BeCl₂, and MgCl₂, we use the concept of electronegativity difference. Ionic character increases with a greater difference in electronegativity between the atoms. Chlorine (Cl) has an electronegativity of approximately 3.0 on the Pauling scale. The electronegativity values for the other elements are: Lithium (Li) ≈ 1.0, Rubidium (Rb) ≈ 0.8, Beryllium (Be) ≈ 1.5, and Magnesium (Mg) ≈ 1.2.
Calculate the electronegativity difference for each compound:
For LiCl: Electronegativity difference = Electronegativity of Cl - Electronegativity of Li = 3.0 - 1.0 = 2.0.
For RbCl: Electronegativity difference = Electronegativity of Cl - Electronegativity of Rb = 3.0 - 0.8 = 2.2.
For BeCl₂: Since BeCl₂ involves bonds between Be and Cl, the electronegativity difference per bond = Electronegativity of Cl - Electronegativity of Be = 3.0 - 1.5 = 1.5.
For MgCl₂: Similarly, the electronegativity difference per bond = Electronegativity of Cl - Electronegativity of Mg = 3.0 - 1.2 = 1.8.
Now, compare the differences:
LiCl: 2.0
RbCl: 2.2
BeCl₂: 1.5
MgCl₂: 1.8
The greatest electronegativity difference is 2.2 for RbCl, indicating it has the greatest ionic character. The least electronegativity difference is 1.5 for BeCl₂, indicating it has the least ionic character.
Therefore, the compound with the greatest ionic character is RbCl, and the compound with the least ionic character is BeCl₂.
Now, review the options:
A. MgCl₂ and BeCl₂ → Incorrect, as MgCl₂ is not the greatest.
B. RbCl and MgCl₂ → Incorrect, as MgCl₂ is not the least.
C. LiCl and RbCl → Incorrect, as LiCl is not the greatest and RbCl is not the least.
D. RbCl and BeCl₂ → Correct, as RbCl has the greatest ionic character and BeCl₂ has the least.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 40ChemistrySection A • MCQp block elements
+4 / -1
Example of a three-dimensional silicate is:
A
Ultramarines
B
Feldspars
C
Zeolites
D
All of these
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
First, let's understand what a three-dimensional silicate is. Silicates are minerals composed of silicon and oxygen atoms. The basic building block is the SiO₄ tetrahedron, where a silicon atom is surrounded by four oxygen atoms. These tetrahedra can link together in different ways to form various structures.
In three-dimensional silicates, the SiO₄ tetrahedra are connected in all three spatial directions, forming a continuous network. This type is also called tectosilicates or framework silicates. Each oxygen atom is shared between two silicon atoms, creating a rigid 3D structure.
Now, let's examine each option:
Option A: Ultramarines
Ultramarines are minerals like lapis lazuli. They are complex aluminosilicates with a sodalite cage structure. In this structure, SiO₄ and AlO₄ tetrahedra are interconnected in three dimensions, forming a framework. Therefore, ultramarines are three-dimensional silicates.
Option B: Feldspars
Feldspars are common rock-forming minerals (e.g., orthoclase, albite). They are aluminosilicates where SiO₄ and AlO₄ tetrahedra share all their oxygen atoms to build an extensive 3D network. This qualifies feldspars as three-dimensional silicates.
Option C: Zeolites
Zeolites are microporous aluminosilicates (e.g., natrolite). They have a honeycomb-like 3D framework where SiO₄ and AlO₄ tetrahedra are linked in all directions, creating channels and cavities. Thus, zeolites are also three-dimensional silicates.
Since ultramarines (A), feldspars (B), and zeolites (C) all exhibit three-dimensional silicate structures, the correct choice is "All of these."
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 41ChemistrySection A • MCQhydrogen
+4 / -1
Which of these statements is not true?
A
LiAlH4 is versatile reducing agent in organic synthesis.
B
NO+ is isoelectronic with O2
C
Boron is always covalent in its compounds
D
In aqueous solution, the Tl+ ion is much more stable than Tl (III)
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given four statements and need to determine which one is not true. Let's examine each option step by step.
Starting with option A: "LiAlH4 is versatile reducing agent in organic synthesis." Lithium aluminium hydride (LiAlH4) is indeed a versatile reducing agent. It reduces a wide range of functional groups, such as carbonyl compounds (aldehydes, ketones, carboxylic acids, esters) to alcohols, and also reduces nitriles, amides, and other groups. This statement is true.
Now option B: "NO+ is isoelectronic with O2." Isoelectronic species have the same total number of electrons. Let's calculate the electrons in each. For NO+: Nitrogen (atomic number 7) has 7 electrons, oxygen (atomic number 8) has 8 electrons. Since NO+ is a cation formed by losing one electron from neutral NO, neutral NO would have 7 + 8 = 15 electrons. Therefore, NO+ has 15 - 1 = 14 electrons. For O2: Each oxygen atom has 8 electrons, so O2 has 8 + 8 = 16 electrons. Since 14 ≠ 16, NO+ and O2 are not isoelectronic. This statement is false.
Moving to option C: "Boron is always covalent in its compounds." Boron is a metalloid with high ionization energy and small atomic size, which favors covalent bonding. Examples include boron trifluoride (BF3) and boric acid (H3BO3), which are covalent. Even in metal borides, bonding is predominantly covalent. Thus, this statement is true.
Finally, option D: "In aqueous solution, the Tl+ ion is much more stable than Tl(III)." Thallium (Tl) exhibits +1 and +3 oxidation states. Due to the inert pair effect, which is strong in heavier group 13 elements, the +1 state becomes more stable than the +3 state for thallium. In aqueous solutions, Tl+ is stable, while Tl(III) acts as a strong oxidizing agent and is easily reduced to Tl+. Hence, this statement is true.
After evaluating all options, we find that option B is not true. Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 42ChemistrySection A • MCQbasics of organic chemistry
+4 / -1
The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is:
A
4-methyl-3-ethylhexane
B
3-ethyl-4-methylhexane
C
4-ethyl-3-methylhexane
D
3,4-ethylmethylhexane
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The longest continuous carbon chain contains 6 carbon atoms, identifying the parent alkane as hexane.
The molecule has two alkyl branches: an ethyl group and a methyl group.
Numbering from either end results in the same locant set (3, 4). According to IUPAC rules, when locants are identical from both sides, the lower number is assigned to the substituent that comes first alphabetically.
Ethyl (E) precedes Methyl (M). Thus, Ethyl is assigned position 3 and Methyl is assigned position 4.
IUPAC Name: 3-ethyl-4-methylhexane
Q 43ChemistrySection A • MCQsolid state
+4 / -1
The total number of octahedral void(s) per atom present in a cubic close packed structure is:
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
In a Cubic Close Packed (ccp) or Face-Centered Cubic (fcc) structure:
Atoms per unit cell (Z): 4 (1 corner + 3 face centers).
Octahedral voids per unit cell (N): 4 (1 at the body center and 3 at the edge centers).
Octahedral voids per atom=Total AtomsTotal Voids=44=1
Q 44ChemistrySection A • MCQsolutions
+4 / -1
For an ideal solution of two components A & B, which of the following is true?
A
ΔHmixing>0 (zero)
B
A − B interaction is stronger than A − A & B − B interactions
C
A − A, B − B & A − B interactions are identical
D
ΔHmixing<0 (zero)
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
For an ideal solution of two components A and B, we need to determine which statement is true among the given options. Let's recall the definition of an ideal solution.
An ideal solution is one where the intermolecular forces between the different components are identical to the intermolecular forces within the same components. This means that the A-B interactions (between molecules of A and B) are equal in strength to the A-A interactions (between molecules of A) and the B-B interactions (between molecules of B).
Now, consider the enthalpy change during mixing, denoted as ΔHmixing. Enthalpy change is related to the energy changes in breaking and forming intermolecular bonds. In an ideal solution, since the A-B interactions are the same as A-A and B-B interactions, there is no net energy change when the components mix. Breaking some A-A and B-B bonds requires energy, but forming A-B bonds releases the same amount of energy. Therefore, the net enthalpy change is zero:
ΔHmixing=0
Now, let's evaluate each option:
Option A states: ΔHmixing>0 (zero). This means the enthalpy of mixing is greater than zero, implying an endothermic process. However, for an ideal solution, ΔHmixing=0, not greater than zero. So, this option is incorrect.
Option B states: A-B interaction is stronger than A-A and B-B interactions. If A-B interactions were stronger, then forming A-B bonds would release more energy than breaking A-A and B-B bonds requires. This would make ΔHmixing<0 (negative). But in an ideal solution, ΔHmixing=0, so the interactions must be equal, not stronger. Thus, this option is false.
Option C states: A-A, B-B, and A-B interactions are identical. This means the strength of the interactions between A-A, B-B, and A-B are the same. This aligns perfectly with the definition of an ideal solution, where the intermolecular forces are uniform. Therefore, this option is correct.
Option D states: ΔHmixing<0 (zero). This means the enthalpy of mixing is less than zero, implying an exothermic process. However, for an ideal solution, ΔHmixing=0, not less than zero. So, this option is incorrect.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 45ChemistrySection A • MCQsolutions
+4 / -1
The observed osmotic pressure for a 0.10 M solution of Fe(NH4)2(SO4)2 at 25 °C is 10.8 atm. The expected and experimental (observed) values of Van't Hoff factor 'i' will be respectively; (R = 0.082 L atm k− mol−1)
A
4 and 4.00
B
3 and 5.42
C
5 and 4.42
D
5 and 3.42
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The osmotic pressure (π) is related to the Van't Hoff factor (i) by the formula:
π=i×C×R×T
where:
- C is the molar concentration (0.10 M),
- R is the gas constant (0.082 L atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹),
- T is the temperature in Kelvin.
First, convert the temperature from Celsius to Kelvin:
T=25+273=298 K
The observed osmotic pressure is given as 10.8 atm. To find the experimental (observed) Van't Hoff factor (iexperimental), rearrange the formula:
iexperimental=C×R×Tπobserved
Substitute the known values:
iexperimental=0.10×0.082×29810.8
Calculate the denominator step by step:
- First, compute 0.10×0.082:
0.10×0.082=0.0082
- Next, multiply by T:
0.0082×298
Break it down:
0.0082×300=2.460.0082×2=0.0164(since 298 = 300 - 2)2.46−0.0164=2.4436
So, the denominator is 2.4436.
Now, divide:
iexperimental=2.443610.8≈4.42
(Detailed division: 2.4436 × 4 = 9.7744; 10.8 - 9.7744 = 1.0256; 1.0256 ÷ 2.4436 ≈ 0.4195; thus, 4 + 0.4195 = 4.4195 ≈ 4.42)
Next, determine the expected Van't Hoff factor (iexpected) for complete dissociation of Fe(NH₄)₂(SO₄)₂. The compound dissociates in water as follows:
Fe(NH4)2(SO4)2→Fe2++2NH4++2SO42−
This produces a total of 5 ions (one Fe²⁺, two NH₄⁺, and two SO₄²⁻). Therefore, for complete dissociation, the expected Van't Hoff factor is 5.
The experimental value is 4.42, which is less than 5, indicating incomplete dissociation or possible ion pairing in the solution.
Comparing with the options:
- A: 4 and 4.00
- B: 3 and 5.42
- C: 5 and 4.42
- D: 5 and 3.42
The values 5 (expected) and 4.42 (experimental) match option C.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 46ChemistrySection A • MCQsolutions
+4 / -1
Choose the correct statement with respect to the vapour pressure of a liquid among the following:
A
Increases non-linearly with increasing temperature
B
Decreases non-linearly with increasing temperature
C
Decreases linearly with increasing temperature
D
Increases linearly with increasing temperature
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The vapour pressure of a liquid is the pressure exerted by its vapour when it is in equilibrium with the liquid phase at a given temperature. To understand how vapour pressure changes with temperature, we use the Clausius-Clapeyron equation. This equation describes the relationship between vapour pressure and temperature.
The Clausius-Clapeyron equation is:
ln(P1P2)=−RΔHvap(T21−T11)
where P1 and P2 are the vapour pressures at temperatures T1 and T2 (in Kelvin), ΔHvap is the enthalpy of vaporization, and R is the gas constant.
We can rearrange this equation to express vapour pressure as a function of temperature. Let P be the vapour pressure at temperature T. The equation becomes:
lnP=−RΔHvap⋅T1+C
where C is a constant. This shows that lnP is linearly related to T1.
To find how P depends on T, we solve for P by exponentiating both sides:
lnP=−TA+B
where A=RΔHvap and B=C are constants. Exponentiating:
P=eB⋅e−TA
This simplifies to:
P=k⋅e−TA
where k=eB is a constant.
This equation reveals that vapour pressure P is an exponential function of T1. As temperature T increases, T1 decreases. Since A is positive (as ΔHvap>0 and R>0), the exponent −TA becomes less negative (i.e., increases) as T increases. Therefore, e−TA increases, causing P to increase.
However, the increase is not linear. The term e−TA depends on T in the denominator of the exponent, resulting in a non-linear relationship. Specifically, P increases rapidly with increasing T, which is characteristic of exponential growth. For example, at lower temperatures, the increase in vapour pressure is slower, but it accelerates as temperature rises.
Now, evaluating the options:
Option A states that vapour pressure increases non-linearly with increasing temperature, which matches our analysis.
Option B states it decreases non-linearly, which is incorrect because vapour pressure increases.
Option C states it decreases linearly, which is also incorrect.
Option D states it increases linearly, but our derivation shows it is exponential, not linear.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 47ChemistrySection A • MCQchemical kinetics
+4 / -1
For the reaction, 3A + 2B → C + D, the differential rate law can be written as:
A
+31dtd[A]=−dtd[C]=k[A]n[B]m
B
31dtd[A]=dtd[C]=k[A]n[B]m
C
−31dtd[A]=dtd[C]=k[A]n[B]m
D
−dtd[A]=dtd[C]=k[A]n[B]m
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
For the reaction 3A+2B→C+D, we need to write the differential rate law. The rate of a reaction is defined as the rate of disappearance of reactants or the rate of appearance of products, divided by their respective stoichiometric coefficients. This ensures the rate is consistent regardless of which species we measure.
The stoichiometric coefficients are 3 for A, 2 for B, 1 for C, and 1 for D. Therefore, the rate of the reaction (denoted as rate) can be expressed in multiple ways:
Rate =−31dtd[A] because A is a reactant and its concentration decreases over time.
Rate =−21dtd[B] because B is a reactant and its concentration decreases.
Rate =+11dtd[C]=dtd[C] because C is a product and its concentration increases.
Rate =+11dtd[D]=dtd[D] because D is a product and its concentration increases.
All these expressions represent the same rate. The differential rate law relates this rate to the concentrations of the reactants, typically written as k[A]n[B]m, where k is the rate constant, and n and m are the orders of the reaction with respect to A and B.
We are asked to compare the expressions involving dtd[A] and dtd[C]. From above:
Rate =−31dtd[A]
and
Rate =dtd[C]
Since both equal the rate, we set them equal:
−31dtd[A]=dtd[C]
Additionally, the rate is given by k[A]n[B]m, so:
−31dtd[A]=k[A]n[B]m
and
dtd[C]=k[A]n[B]m
Therefore, we can write:
−31dtd[A]=dtd[C]=k[A]n[B]m
Now, let's examine the options:
Option A: +31dtd[A]=−dtd[C]=k[A]n[B]m
This implies +31dtd[A]=k[A]n[B]m and −dtd[C]=k[A]n[B]m. However, since A is a reactant, dtd[A] is negative, so +31dtd[A] would be negative, but −dtd[C] would be negative (as dtd[C] is positive), while the rate k[A]n[B]m is positive. This does not match our derived equation.
Option B: 31dtd[A]=dtd[C]=k[A]n[B]m
This implies 31dtd[A]=k[A]n[B]m and dtd[C]=k[A]n[B]m. Since A is decreasing, dtd[A] is negative, so 31dtd[A] is negative, but dtd[C] is positive. A negative quantity cannot equal a positive quantity unless both are zero, which is not generally true. Hence, this is incorrect.
Option C: −31dtd[A]=dtd[C]=k[A]n[B]m
This matches exactly what we derived: −31dtd[A]=dtd[C]=k[A]n[B]m.
Option D: −dtd[A]=dtd[C]=k[A]n[B]m
This implies −dtd[A]=k[A]n[B]m and dtd[C]=k[A]n[B]m. From our rate definition, −dtd[A]=3×(−31dtd[A])=3×rate, and dtd[C]=rate. So −dtd[A]=3×dtd[C], meaning −dtd[A] is three times dtd[C]. The option claims they are equal, which would require 3×dtd[C]=dtd[C], implying dtd[C]=0, which is not true in general. Hence, this is incorrect.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 48ChemistrySection A • MCQgeneral principles and processes of isolation of elements
+4 / -1
Which one of the following ores is known as Malachite:
A
Cu2S
B
Cu2O
C
Cu(OH)2 · CuCO3
D
CuFeS2
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given a question about identifying the ore known as Malachite. Malachite is a common copper ore, and we need to recall its chemical composition.
Malachite is a green mineral that is a hydrated copper carbonate. Its chemical formula is Cu2CO3(OH)2. This can also be written as CuCO3 · Cu(OH)2 because Cu2CO3(OH)2 is equivalent to CuCO3 · Cu(OH)2. Let's verify this equivalence:
Starting with CuCO3 · Cu(OH)2:
This represents one molecule of copper carbonate and one molecule of copper hydroxide. Writing the atoms:
CuCO3 has Cu, C, and 3O.
Cu(OH)2 has Cu, 2O, and 2H (since OH is oxygen and hydrogen).
Combining: Cu + Cu = 2Cu; C = 1C; O: 3 + 2 = 5O; H: 2H.
So the combined formula is Cu2CO5H2. But note that CO3(OH)2 can be rewritten as CO3 and (OH)2, and in standard notation, Cu2CO3(OH)2 means two copper atoms, one carbonate group (CO3), and two hydroxide groups (OH)2, which is Cu2CO3(OH)2 and has the same atoms: 2Cu, 1C, 3O (from CO3) + 2O and 2H (from two OH groups) = 2Cu, 1C, 5O, 2H. Hence, CuCO3 · Cu(OH)2 is indeed equivalent to Cu2CO3(OH)2.
Now, let's examine the options:
Option A: Cu2S - This is copper(I) sulfide, known as Chalcocite, not Malachite.
Option B: Cu2O - This is copper(I) oxide, known as Cuprite, not Malachite.
Option C: Cu(OH)2 · CuCO3 - As established, this is the formula for Malachite.
Option D: CuFeS2 - This is copper iron sulfide, known as Chalcopyrite, not Malachite.
Therefore, the ore known as Malachite is Cu(OH)2 · CuCO3.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 49ChemistrySection A • MCQcoordination compounds
+4 / -1
An octahedral complex with molecular composition M.5NH3.Cl.SO4 has two isomers, A and B. The solution of A gives a white precipitate with AgNO3 solution and the solution of B gives white precipitate with BaCl2 solution. The type of isomerism exhibited by the complex is:
A
Coordinate isomerism
B
Geometrical isomerism
C
Ionisation isomerism
D
Linkage isomerism
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The given octahedral complex has the molecular composition M·5NH₃·Cl·SO₄, meaning it contains a central metal atom M, five ammonia ligands (NH₃), one chloride ion (Cl⁻), and one sulfate ion (SO₄²⁻). Since the complex is neutral, the oxidation state of M must be determined. Ammonia is neutral, chloride has a charge of -1, and sulfate has a charge of -2. Therefore, the metal M must have an oxidation state of +3 to balance the total charge: (+3)+5×(0)+(−1)+(−2)=0.
This complex exhibits two isomers, A and B. The solution of isomer A produces a white precipitate when treated with AgNO₃ solution. Silver nitrate (AgNO₃) tests for free chloride ions (Cl⁻) by forming insoluble silver chloride (AgCl): AgNO3+Cl−→AgCl↓+NO3−. Thus, isomer A must have chloride ions outside the coordination sphere.
The solution of isomer B produces a white precipitate when treated with BaCl₂ solution. Barium chloride (BaCl₂) tests for free sulfate ions (SO₄²⁻) by forming insoluble barium sulfate (BaSO₄): BaCl2+SO42−→BaSO4↓+2Cl−. Thus, isomer B must have sulfate ions outside the coordination sphere.
Given that both isomers share the same molecular formula but differ in which ions are inside or outside the coordination sphere, we can write their structures as:
Isomer A: Chloride is outside, so sulfate must be coordinated. The formula is [M(NH₃)₅SO₄]Cl. In aqueous solution, it dissociates to give free Cl⁻ ions: [M(NH3)5SO4]+Cl−⇌[M(NH3)5SO4]++Cl−. This explains the positive test with AgNO₃.
Isomer B: Sulfate is outside, so chloride must be coordinated. The formula is [M(NH₃)₅Cl]SO₄. In aqueous solution, it dissociates to give free SO₄²⁻ ions: [M(NH3)5Cl]2+SO42−⇌[M(NH3)5Cl]2++SO42−. This explains the positive test with BaCl₂.
The isomers have identical atoms bonded but differ in the ionization of the counter ions, leading to different ions in solution. This is characteristic of ionization isomerism, where the ligands exchange roles between being coordinated and being counter ions.
Now, evaluating the options:
Option A (Coordinate isomerism) involves complexes with multiple metal centers and different ligand distributions. Since this complex has only one metal center, it does not apply.
Option B (Geometrical isomerism) arises from different spatial arrangements of the same ligands (e.g., cis-trans). Here, the ligands differ (Cl⁻ vs. SO₄²⁻ coordinated), so it does not apply.
Option C (Ionisation isomerism) fits, as the isomers produce different ions in solution due to the exchange of ionic ligands between the coordination sphere and the counter ions.
Option D (Linkage isomerism) occurs when a ligand bonds through different atoms (e.g., ambidentate ligands). Sulfate typically coordinates via oxygen, and there is no evidence of different bonding modes, so it does not apply.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 50ChemistrySection A • MCQcoordination compounds
+4 / -1
Nickel (Z = 28) combines with a uninegative monodentate ligand to form a diamagnetic complex [NiL4]2−. The hybridisation involved and the number of unpaired electrons present in the complex are respectively:
A
dsp2, zero
B
sp3, zero
C
dsp2, one
D
sp3, two
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Nickel has an atomic number of 28, so its electron configuration is [Ar] 4s² 3d⁸. In the complex [NiL₄]²⁻, the ligand L is uninegative (charge -1) and monodentate. The overall charge of the complex is -2. Let the oxidation state of nickel be x. Then, we write the equation: x + 4 × (-1) = -2. Solving this, x - 4 = -2, so x = +2. Therefore, nickel is in the +2 oxidation state.
The electron configuration of Ni²⁺ is [Ar] 3d⁸, meaning it has 8 electrons in the 3d orbitals. The complex is diamagnetic, which means it has zero unpaired electrons. Now, we must determine the geometry of the complex to understand the orbital splitting and electron pairing.
Since there are four ligands, the complex could be tetrahedral or square planar. In a tetrahedral field, the d-orbitals split into a lower-energy e set (two orbitals) and a higher-energy t₂ set (three orbitals). For a d⁸ configuration in a tetrahedral complex, the small splitting typically results in high-spin behavior. The e set can hold 4 electrons (all paired), and the remaining 4 electrons go into the t₂ set. With three orbitals in the t₂ set, Hund's rule applies: three electrons occupy each orbital singly, and the fourth electron pairs with one, resulting in two unpaired electrons. However, the complex is diamagnetic (zero unpaired electrons), so tetrahedral geometry is not possible.
Therefore, the complex must be square planar. In a square planar field, the d-orbitals split into four energy levels: dₓᵧ (highest energy), dₓ₂₋ᵧ₂ (next highest), d_z₂ (lower), and dₓᵧ/d_yz (degenerate, lowest). For a d⁸ configuration, the electrons fill the orbitals as follows: the lowest degenerate pair dₓᵧ/d_yz holds 4 electrons (two pairs), then d_z₂ holds 2 electrons (one pair), and dₓᵧ holds 2 electrons (one pair), leaving dₓ₂₋ᵧ₂ empty. All 8 electrons are paired, resulting in zero unpaired electrons, which matches the diamagnetic property.
For square planar geometry, the hybridization is dsp². This involves one d orbital (dₓ₂₋ᵧ₂), one s orbital, and two p orbitals, forming four hybrid orbitals directed towards the corners of a square.
Thus, the hybridization is dsp² and the number of unpaired electrons is zero.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 51ChemistrySection A • MCQd and f block elements
+4 / -1
Amongst the following, identify the species with an atom in +6 oxidation state.
A
CrO2Cl2
B
[Cr(CN)6]3−
C
Cr2O3
D
[MnO4]−
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
For CrO2Cl2 (Chromyl chloride):
Let the oxidation state of Cr be x.
x+2(O.S. of O)+2(O.S. of Cl)=0
x+2(−2)+2(−1)=0
x−4−2=0⟹x=+6
For [Cr(CN)6]3−:
Let the oxidation state of Cr be x.
x+6(O.S. of CN)=−3
x+6(−1)=−3
x−6=−3⟹x=+3
For Cr2O3:
Let the oxidation state of Cr be x.
2x+3(O.S. of O)=0
2x+3(−2)=0
2x=6⟹x=+3
For [MnO4]− (Permanganate ion):
Let the oxidation state of Mn be y.
y+4(O.S. of O)=−1
y+4(−2)=−1
y−8=−1⟹y=+7
Q 52ChemistrySection A • MCQaldehydes ketones and carboxylic acids
+4 / -1
The major product formed when 1, 1, 1-trichloropropane is treated with aqueous potassium hydroxide is:
A
2-Propanol
B
Propyne
C
Propionic acid
D
1-Propanol
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The compound given is 1,1,1-trichloropropane, which has the structure CH3−CH2−CCl3. Here, the carbon atom at position 1 (the terminal carbon) is bonded to three chlorine atoms.
When treated with aqueous potassium hydroxide (KOH), this compound undergoes hydrolysis. Aqueous KOH provides hydroxide ions (OH−) that act as a nucleophile. The reaction involves the substitution of chlorine atoms by hydroxyl groups, but due to the presence of three chlorine atoms on the same carbon, the process leads to the formation of a carboxylic acid.
The mechanism proceeds as follows:
First, one hydroxide ion attacks the carbon atom bearing the chlorine atoms, replacing one chlorine atom to form an intermediate:
CH3−CH2−CCl3+OH−−>CH3−CH2−CCl2OH+Cl−
This intermediate, CH3−CH2−CCl2OH, is unstable because it has two chlorine atoms and a hydroxyl group on the same carbon. It readily loses a chloride ion and rearranges to form a dichlorocarbene-like species, but in aqueous conditions, it undergoes further hydrolysis.
The intermediate reacts with another hydroxide ion:
CH3−CH2−CCl2OH+OH−−>CH3−CH2−CCl(OH)2+Cl−
Now, we have CH3−CH2−CCl(OH)2, which is a geminal diol with one chlorine. This compound is highly unstable and undergoes rapid hydrolysis. The chlorine atom is replaced by another hydroxyl group:
CH3−CH2−CCl(OH)2+OH−−>CH3−CH2−C(OH)3+Cl−
The resulting compound, CH3−CH2−C(OH)3, is a geminal triol. Geminal triols are unstable and spontaneously lose a water molecule to form the corresponding carboxylic acid:
CH3−CH2−C(OH)3−>CH3−CH2−COOH+H2O
Thus, the overall reaction is:
CH3−CH2−CCl3+2KOH−>CH3−CH2−COOH+2KCl+H2O
The product is propionic acid, which has the formula CH3CH2COOH.
Now, comparing with the options:
Option A: 2-Propanol is CH3CH(OH)CH3
Option B: Propyne is CH3C≡CH
Option C: Propionic acid is CH3CH2COOH
Option D: 1-Propanol is CH3CH2CH2OH
The major product is propionic acid, corresponding to option C.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 53ChemistrySection A • MCQalcohols phenols and ethers
+4 / -1
Which of the following compounds will not be soluble in sodium bicarbonate?
A
2, 4, 6-Trinitrophenol
B
Benzene sulphonic acid
C
o-Nitrophenol
D
Benzoic acid
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To determine which compound will not be soluble in sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃), we must recall that sodium bicarbonate is a weak base and reacts only with acids stronger than carbonic acid (H₂CO₃). Carbonic acid has a pKa value of approximately 6.3. Therefore, any acid with a pKa less than or equal to 6.3 will react with NaHCO₃, producing carbon dioxide gas and dissolving in the solution. Acids with pKa greater than 6.3 are weaker than carbonic acid and will not react with NaHCO₃, hence they are insoluble.
Now, let's evaluate each option:
Option A: 2,4,6-Trinitrophenol (Picric acid)
This compound has three nitro groups attached to the phenol ring, which are strong electron-withdrawing groups. These groups significantly increase the acidity. The pKa of picric acid is about 0.4, which is much less than 6.3. Therefore, it is a strong acid and will react with NaHCO₃, making it soluble.
Option B: Benzene sulphonic acid
Sulphonic acids are very strong acids. The pKa of benzene sulphonic acid is approximately -6.5, which is far less than 6.3. Hence, it will readily react with NaHCO₃ and dissolve.
Option C: o-Nitrophenol
This is a phenol derivative with a nitro group at the ortho position. While the nitro group is electron-withdrawing and increases acidity compared to phenol (pKa ≈ 10), the pKa of o-nitrophenol is about 7.23. Since 7.23 is greater than 6.3, o-nitrophenol is a weaker acid than carbonic acid. Thus, it will not react with NaHCO₃ and will not dissolve.
Option D: Benzoic acid
Benzoic acid is a carboxylic acid. Its pKa is approximately 4.2, which is less than 6.3. Therefore, it is stronger than carbonic acid and will react with NaHCO₃, leading to solubility.
Based on the pKa values, o-Nitrophenol (Option C) is the only compound that will not dissolve in sodium bicarbonate because it is too weak an acid to react with it.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 54ChemistrySection A • MCQalcohols phenols and ethers
+4 / -1
Which one of the following substituents at para-position is most effective in stabilizing the phenoxide ion?
A
-CH3
B
-OCH3
C
-COCH3
D
-CH2OH
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
−CH3 (Option A): This is an electron-donating group through the +I (inductive) effect and hyperconjugation. It destabilizes the phenoxide ion.
−OCH3 (Option B): It can donate into the ring via the +M (mesomeric) effect. This makes it a strong electron-donating group that destabilizes the ion.
−COCH3 (Option C): This acetyl group is a strong electron-withdrawing group. It exerts both a −I effect and a powerful −M (resonance withdrawing) effect.
Because it is at the para-position, the negative charge from the phenoxide oxygen can be delocalized through the ring directly onto the oxygen of the carbonyl group. This is the most effective form of stabilization.
−CH2OH (Option D): This group has a mild −I effect but lacks the resonance-withdrawing capability of a carbonyl group. It is significantly less effective at stabilizing the charge than an acetyl group.
Q 55ChemistrySection A • MCQalcohols phenols and ethers
+4 / -1
Williamson synthesis of ether is an example of:
A
Nucleophilic substitution
B
Electrophilic addition
C
Nucleophilic addition
D
Electrophilic substitution
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The Williamson synthesis of ether is a method used to prepare ethers. It involves the reaction between an alkoxide ion and an alkyl halide. Let me explain this step by step.
Consider the general reaction: an alkoxide ion, represented as RO−, reacts with an alkyl halide, represented as R′X, where R and R' are alkyl groups (which can be the same or different), and X is a halogen atom like chlorine, bromine, or iodine. The reaction produces an ether and a salt. The chemical equation is:
RO−+R′X−>ROR′+X−
Now, let's analyze the mechanism. The alkoxide ion RO− has a negatively charged oxygen atom, making it electron-rich. This means it acts as a nucleophile (a species that donates an electron pair). The alkyl halide R′X has a polar carbon-halogen bond, where the carbon atom is partially positive (electrophilic) due to the higher electronegativity of the halogen. The nucleophile (RO−) attacks the electrophilic carbon atom of the alkyl halide. This leads to the breaking of the carbon-halogen bond and the formation of a new carbon-oxygen bond. As a result, the halogen atom (X) is displaced as a halide ion.
This process involves the substitution of the halogen atom in the alkyl halide by the alkoxy group (OR). Since the attacking species is a nucleophile, and it replaces another group (the halide), this reaction is classified as a nucleophilic substitution reaction.
Now, comparing this with the given options:
Option A: Nucleophilic substitution - This matches the mechanism described above.
Option B: Electrophilic addition - This involves an electrophile adding to a double bond, which does not occur here as there is no unsaturated bond in the reactants.
Option C: Nucleophilic addition - This involves a nucleophile adding across a double bond, typically seen in carbonyl compounds, but here we have substitution, not addition.
Option D: Electrophilic substitution - This is common in aromatic compounds where an electrophile replaces a hydrogen atom, but Williamson synthesis involves aliphatic compounds and nucleophilic attack.
Therefore, Williamson synthesis is a nucleophilic substitution reaction.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 56ChemistrySection A • MCQcompounds containing nitrogen
+4 / -1
The final product formed when methylamine is treated with NaNO2 and HCl followed by hydrolysis is:
A
Nitromethane
B
Methylcyanide
C
Methyl alcohol
D
Diazomethane
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
NaNO2+HCl→HNO2+NaCl
CH3NH2+HNO2HCl[CH3−N≡N]+Cl−
[CH3−N2]+Cl−+H2O→CH3OH+N2↑+HCl
Main Product: Methyl alcohol (Methanol)
By-products: Nitrogen gas (N2) and Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
Q 57ChemistrySection A • MCQcompounds containing nitrogen
+4 / -1
In a set of reactions p-nitrotoluene yielded a product E.
The product E would be:
A
B
C
D
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Q 58ChemistrySection A • MCQpolymers
+4 / -1
Which one of the following is an example of thermosetting polymer?
A
Nylon-6,6
B
Bakelite
C
Buna-N
D
Teflon
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
First, we need to understand what a thermosetting polymer is. Thermosetting polymers are plastics that, once set and hardened, cannot be reshaped by heating. This happens because they form strong cross-links between their polymer chains during the curing process, creating a rigid, three-dimensional network that doesn't melt when reheated. In contrast, thermoplastic polymers soften when heated and harden when cooled, allowing them to be remolded multiple times.
Now, let's examine each option:
Option A: Nylon-6,6. Nylon-6,6 is a synthetic polymer made from hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid. It is a polyamide and is classified as a thermoplastic. This means it can be melted and reshaped repeatedly when heated. Therefore, it is not a thermosetting polymer.
Option B: Bakelite. Bakelite is made from phenol and formaldehyde through a condensation reaction. During its formation, it undergoes extensive cross-linking, creating a rigid, infusible structure. Once cured, it cannot be softened or remolded by heating. This makes Bakelite a classic example of a thermosetting polymer.
Option C: Buna-N. Buna-N is a copolymer of butadiene and acrylonitrile. It is a synthetic rubber (elastomer) and is typically considered a thermoplastic elastomer. While it can be cross-linked (vulcanized) to improve properties, its base form is thermoplastic and can be reshaped by heating. Thus, it is not primarily classified as thermosetting.
Option D: Teflon. Teflon is polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE), a polymer of tetrafluoroethylene. It has a high melting point but is a thermoplastic. It softens when heated and can be molded, meaning it is not thermosetting.
After evaluating all options, Bakelite (Option B) is the only one that fits the definition of a thermosetting polymer due to its irreversible cross-linked structure.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 59ChemistrySection A • MCQaldehydes ketones and carboxylic acids
+4 / -1
Among the following organic acids, the acid present in rancid butter is:
A
Pyruvic acid
B
Acetic acid
C
Butyric acid
D
Lactic acid
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The question asks which organic acid is present in rancid butter among the given options.
Rancid butter develops an unpleasant odor due to the breakdown of fats. This process releases short-chain fatty acids. Specifically, butyric acid is known to be responsible for the characteristic smell of rancid butter.
Now, let's examine each option:
Option A: Pyruvic acid has the formula CH3COCOOH. It is an intermediate in metabolic pathways and is not associated with rancid butter.
Option B: Acetic acid has the formula CH3COOH. It is the main component of vinegar and gives vinegar its sour taste, but it is not the acid in rancid butter.
Option C: Butyric acid has the formula CH3CH2CH2COOH. It is a short-chain fatty acid produced when butter becomes rancid due to the hydrolysis of triglycerides, leading to the release of butyric acid, which causes the foul smell.
Option D: Lactic acid has the formula CH3CH(OH)COOH. It is found in sour milk and is produced during anaerobic respiration in muscles, but it is not the acid in rancid butter.
Therefore, butyric acid is the acid present in rancid butter.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 60ChemistrySection A • MCQbiomolecules
+4 / -1
The reason for double helical structure of DNA is the operation of:
A
Van der Waals forces
B
Electrostatic attractions
C
Hydrogen bonding
D
Dipole-Dipole interactions
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The question asks for the reason behind the double helical structure of DNA. DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, has a characteristic double helix shape, resembling a twisted ladder. This structure is stabilized by specific interactions between the nitrogenous bases on opposite strands.
The backbone of DNA consists of sugar and phosphate groups, while the rungs of the ladder are formed by pairs of nitrogenous bases: adenine (A) with thymine (T), and guanine (G) with cytosine (C). The force that holds these base pairs together is hydrogen bonding. Specifically:
Adenine and thymine form two hydrogen bonds: A⋯H−NandN−H⋯O (between N-H of adenine and O of thymine, and N of adenine and H-N of thymine).
Guanine and cytosine form three hydrogen bonds: O⋯H−N,N−H⋯O,andN−H⋯N (involving carbonyl and amino groups).
Hydrogen bonding is an intermolecular force where a hydrogen atom bonded to an electronegative atom (like N or O) is attracted to another electronegative atom. This provides directionality and specificity, ensuring complementary base pairing (A with T, G with C), which is crucial for the double helix formation.
Now, evaluating the other options:
Option A: Van der Waals forces - These are weak, non-specific attractions between all atoms/molecules. While they contribute to the overall stability of the DNA helix by acting between stacked bases, they are not the primary force for base pairing.
Option B: Electrostatic attractions - These involve interactions between charged groups. In DNA, the phosphate backbone has negative charges, which are neutralized by ions (e.g., Mg²⁺) or proteins, but this does not hold the base pairs together.
Option D: Dipole-Dipole interactions - These occur between polar molecules but are weaker and less specific than hydrogen bonding. Hydrogen bonding is a stronger subset of dipole-dipole interactions, but the term "dipole-dipole" alone does not capture the specificity of base pairing in DNA.
Thus, hydrogen bonding is the key interaction responsible for the complementary base pairing that maintains the double helical structure of DNA.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 61MathematicsSection A • MCQquadratic equations
+4 / -1
The equation 3x2+x+5=x−3, where x is real, has:
A
no solution
B
exactly four solutions
C
exactly one solution
D
exactly two solutions
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We start with the equation: 3x2+x+5=x−3
Since the square root function always gives a non-negative result, the right-hand side must be greater than or equal to zero. Therefore, we have the condition: x−3≥0⇒x≥3
Any solution must satisfy x≥3. To solve the equation, we square both sides to eliminate the square root. However, squaring can introduce extraneous solutions, so we must check any solutions against the original equation.
Squaring both sides: (3x2+x+5)2=(x−3)2
This simplifies to: 3x2+x+5=(x−3)2
Expanding the right-hand side: (x−3)2=x2−6x+9
So the equation becomes: 3x2+x+5=x2−6x+9
Bring all terms to the left-hand side: 3x2+x+5−x2+6x−9=0
Combine like terms: (3x2−x2)+(x+6x)+(5−9)=0⇒2x2+7x−4=0
We now have a quadratic equation: 2x2+7x−4=0. Solve using the quadratic formula: x=2a−b±b2−4ac where a=2, b=7, and c=−4.
First, compute the discriminant: D=b2−4ac=(7)2−4(2)(−4)=49+32=81
Since D=81>0, there are two real roots. Now compute the roots: x=4−7±81=4−7±9
So the roots are: x=4−7+9=42=21andx=4−7−9=4−16=−4
We have two solutions: x=21 and x=−4. However, recall the condition x≥3. Neither solution satisfies this: 21=0.5<3 and −4<3.
Now, verify by substituting back into the original equation. For x=21:
Since both solutions are invalid and there are no other solutions, the equation has no solution.
Options:
A. no solution
B. exactly four solutions
C. exactly one solution
D. exactly two solutions
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 62MathematicsSection A • MCQcomplex numbers
+4 / -1
For all complex numbers z of the form 1+iα, α∈R, if z2=x+iy, then:
A
y2−4x+4=0
B
y2+4x−4=0
C
y2−4x+2=0
D
y2+4x+2=0
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Given that z is a complex number of the form 1+iα, where α is a real number, so z=1+iα. We are told that z2=x+iy, and we need to find the relation between x and y.
First, compute z2:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
z^2 = (1 + i\a…" style="color:#cc0000">$
z^2 = (1 + i\alpha)^2$
Expand the square:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
(1 + i\alpha)^…" style="color:#cc0000">$
(1 + i\alpha)^2 = 1^2 + 2 \cdot 1 \cdot (i\alpha) + (i\alpha)^2 = 1 + 2i\alpha + i^2 \alpha^2$
Since i2=−1, substitute:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
1 + 2i\alpha +…" style="color:#cc0000">$
1 + 2i\alpha + (-1)\alpha^2 = 1 + 2i\alpha - \alpha^2$
Group the real and imaginary parts:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
z^2 = (1 - \al…" style="color:#cc0000">$
z^2 = (1 - \alpha^2) + (2\alpha)i$
But z2=x+iy, so comparing real and imaginary parts:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
x = 1 - \alpha…" style="color:#cc0000">$
x = 1 - \alpha^2 \quad \text{(real part)}$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
y = 2\alpha \q…" style="color:#cc0000">$
y = 2\alpha \quad \text{(imaginary part)}$
We have two equations:
1. x=1−α2
2. y=2α
We need to eliminate α to find a relation between x and y. From the second equation, solve for α:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\alpha = \frac…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\alpha = \frac{y}{2}$
Substitute this into the first equation:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
x = 1 - \left(…" style="color:#cc0000">$
x = 1 - \left( \frac{y}{2} \right)^2$
Compute the square:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
x = 1 - \frac{…" style="color:#cc0000">$
x = 1 - \frac{y^2}{4}$
To eliminate the fraction, multiply both sides by 4:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
4x = 4 \cdot 1…" style="color:#cc0000">$
4x = 4 \cdot 1 - 4 \cdot \frac{y^2}{4}$
Simplify:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
4x = 4 - y^2" style="color:#cc0000">$
4x = 4 - y^2$
Rearrange all terms to one side:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
y^2 + 4x - 4 =…" style="color:#cc0000">$
y^2 + 4x - 4 = 0$
Now, compare this equation with the given options:
A. y2−4x+4=0
B. y2+4x−4=0
C. y2−4x+2=0
D. y2+4x+2=0
Our equation y2+4x−4=0 matches option B.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 63MathematicsSection A • MCQpermutations and combinations
+4 / -1
Two women and some men participated in a chess tournament in which every participant played two games with each of the other participants. If the number of games that the men played between themselves exceeds the number of games that the men played with the women by 66, then the number of men who participated in the tournament lies in the interval:
A
(11, 13]
B
(14, 17)
C
[10, 12)
D
[8, 9]
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let the number of men be denoted by m. Since there are two women, the total number of participants is m+2. In the tournament, every pair of participants plays two games against each other.
First, calculate the number of games played exclusively among the men. The number of ways to choose any two men from m men is given by the combination formula (2m), which equals 2m(m−1). Since each pair plays two games, the total number of games among the men is:
2×(2m)=2×2m(m−1)=m(m−1)
Next, calculate the number of games played between the men and the women. Each man plays two games with each of the two women. Therefore, for one man, the number of games against women is 2×2=4. With m men, the total number of such games is:
m×4=4m
The problem states that the number of games played among the men exceeds the number of games played between the men and the women by 66. This gives the equation:
m(m−1)−4m=66
Simplify this equation step by step:
m2−m−4m=66
m2−5m=66
Bring all terms to one side to form a quadratic equation:
m2−5m−66=0
Solve this quadratic equation using factorization. We need two numbers that multiply to -66 and add to -5. The pair that satisfies this is -11 and 6, since −11×6=−66 and −11+6=−5. Thus, the equation factors as:
(m−11)(m+6)=0
Setting each factor equal to zero gives:
m−11=0orm+6=0
m=11orm=−6
Since the number of men cannot be negative, we discard m=−6. Therefore, the number of men is m=11.
Now, determine which interval contains 11 by examining the options:
Option A: (11, 13] → This interval includes numbers greater than 11 and up to 13, but not 11 itself.
Option B: (14, 17) → This interval includes numbers between 14 and 17, excluding endpoints. 11 is not in this range.
Option C: [10, 12) → This interval includes numbers from 10 (inclusive) to 12 (exclusive). Since 10 ≤ 11 < 12, 11 is included.
Option D: [8, 9] → This interval includes numbers from 8 to 9 inclusive. 11 is not in this range.
Hence, the number of men, 11, lies in the interval [10, 12), which corresponds to Option C.
So, the answer is Option C.
Q 64MathematicsSection A • MCQsequences and series
+4 / -1
Let f(n)=[31+1003n]n, where [n] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to n. Then ∑n=156f(n) is equal to:
A
56
B
1287
C
1399
D
689
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The function is defined as f(n)=[31+1003n]n, where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x. We need to compute ∑n=156f(n).
First, let an=31+1003n. Then f(n)=n⋅[an]. We determine the value of [an] for n from 1 to 56.
Calculate an for the boundaries:
At n=1: a1=31+1003⋅1=31+1003. Using a common denominator of 300, 31=300100 and 1003=3009, so a1=300100+3009=300109≈0.3633. Thus, [a1]=0.
At n=56: a56=31+1003⋅56=31+100168=31+2542. Using a common denominator of 75, 31=7525 and 2542=75126, so a56=7525+75126=75151≈2.0133. Thus, [a56]=2.
Now, find when [an] changes. Solve for when an<1:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\frac{1}{3} + …" style="color:#cc0000">$
\frac{1}{3} + \frac{3n}{100} \lt 1 \implies \frac{3n}{100} \lt 1 - \frac{1}{3} = \frac{2}{3} \implies 3n \lt \frac{2}{3} \cdot 100 = \frac{200}{3} \implies 9n \lt 200 \implies n \lt \frac{200}{9} \approx 22.222.$
Since n is an integer, n≤22. Check n=22: a22=31+1003⋅22=31+10066=31+5033. Using a common denominator of 150, 31=15050 and 5033=15099, so a22=15050+15099=150149≈0.9933<1. Thus, [a22]=0. For n=23: a23=31+1003⋅23=31+10069. Using a common denominator of 300, 31=300100 and 10069=300207, so a23=300100+300207=300307≈1.0233>1. Thus, [a23]=1. Therefore, for n=1 to 22, [an]=0.
Next, solve for when an<2:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\frac{1}{3} + …" style="color:#cc0000">$
\frac{1}{3} + \frac{3n}{100} \lt 2 \implies \frac{3n}{100} \lt 2 - \frac{1}{3} = \frac{5}{3} \implies 3n \lt \frac{5}{3} \cdot 100 = \frac{500}{3} \implies 9n \lt 500 \implies n \lt \frac{500}{9} \approx 55.555.$
Since n is an integer, n≤55. Check n=55: a55=31+1003⋅55=31+100165=31+2033. Using a common denominator of 60, 31=6020 and 2033=6099, so a55=6020+6099=60119≈1.9833<2. Thus, [a55]=1. For n=56, as before, [a56]=2. Therefore, for n=23 to 55, [an]=1, and for n=56, [an]=2.
Now, express f(n):
For n=1 to 22: f(n)=n⋅0=0.
For n=23 to 55: f(n)=n⋅1=n.
For n=56: f(n)=56⋅2=112.
The sum is:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\sum_{n=1}^{56…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\sum_{n=1}^{56} f(n) = \sum_{n=1}^{22} 0 + \sum_{n=23}^{55} n + 112 = 0 + \sum_{n=23}^{55} n + 112.$
Compute ∑n=2355n. The sum of the first m integers is 2m(m+1), so:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\sum_{n=23}^{5…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\sum_{n=23}^{55} n = \sum_{n=1}^{55} n - \sum_{n=1}^{22} n = \frac{55 \cdot 56}{2} - \frac{22 \cdot 23}{2} = \frac{3080}{2} - \frac{506}{2} = 1540 - 253 = 1287.$
Alternatively, the number of terms from 23 to 55 is 55−23+1=33, and the sum is 2number of terms⋅(first term+last term)=233⋅(23+55)=233⋅78=33⋅39=1287.
Add the term for n=56:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\sum_{n=1}^{56…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\sum_{n=1}^{56} f(n) = 1287 + 112 = 1399.$
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 65MathematicsSection A • MCQsequences and series
+4 / -1
The number of terms in an A.P. is even, the sum of the odd terms in it is 24 and that of the even terms is 30. If the last term exceeds the first term by 1021, then the number of terms in the A.P. is:
A
4
B
8
C
16
D
12
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let the total number of terms in the arithmetic progression (A.P.) be 2n, since it is even. This means there are n terms in odd positions and n terms in even positions.
Assume the first term is a and the common difference is d. The sequence is:
Term 1: a, Term 2: a+d, Term 3: a+2d, Term 4: a+3d, ..., Term 2n: a+(2n−1)d.
The odd-positioned terms are: a, a+2d, a+4d, ..., up to n terms. This forms an A.P. with first term a, common difference 2d, and n terms. The sum of these odd terms is given as 24:
Sum = 2n×[2a+(n−1)⋅2d]=n[a+(n−1)d]=24. ...(1)
The even-positioned terms are: a+d, a+3d, a+5d, ..., up to n terms. This forms an A.P. with first term a+d, common difference 2d, and n terms. The sum of these even terms is given as 30:
Sum = 2n×[2(a+d)+(n−1)⋅2d]=n[a+d+(n−1)d]=n[a+nd]=30. ...(2)
Subtract equation (1) from equation (2):
n[a+nd]−n[a+(n−1)d]=30−24
n[a+nd−a−(n−1)d]=6
n[nd−(n−1)d]=6
n[d]=6
nd=6. ...(3)
It is given that the last term exceeds the first term by 1021=221:
Last term = a+(2n−1)d, First term = a, so:
a+(2n−1)d−a=221
(2n−1)d=221. ...(4)
Substitute nd=6 from equation (3) into equation (4):
(2n−1)d=221
2n⋅d−d=221
2×6−d=221
12−d=221
Solve for d:
d=12−221=224−221=23.
Now substitute d=23 into equation (3):
n×23=6
n=6×32=4.
Therefore, the total number of terms is 2n=2×4=8.
Verification:
Using equation (1): n[a+(n−1)d]=4[a+(4−1)⋅23]=4[a+29]=24
So, a+29=6, thus a=6−29=212−29=23.
Using equation (2): n[a+nd]=4[23+4⋅23]=4[23+6]=4[215]=4×7.5=30, which matches.
Last term: a+(2n−1)d=23+(8−1)⋅23=23+221=224=12
First term: a=23
Difference: 12−23=224−23=221=10.5, which matches.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 66MathematicsSection A • MCQbinomial theorem
+4 / -1
The coefficient of x1012 in the expansion of (1+xn+x253)10, (where n≤22 is any positive integer), is:
A
253C4
B
10C4
C
4n
D
1
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The given expression is (1+xn+x253)10, and we need to find the coefficient of x1012 where n is a positive integer with n≤22.
In the expansion of (1+xn+x253)10, each term arises from selecting one of the three options—1, xn, or x253—from each of the 10 factors. The general term is given by the multinomial coefficient:
where a, b, and c are non-negative integers satisfying a+b+c=10, and (a,b,c10)=a!b!c!10!.
We require the exponent of x to be 1012:
nb+253c=1012
and the constraint a+b+c=10 implies b+c≤10 since a=10−b−c≥0.
Given n≤22, we solve for non-negative integers b and c such that nb+253c=1012 and b+c≤10. Rearranging for b:
b=n1012−253c
Since b must be a non-negative integer, 1012−253c must be divisible by n and non-negative. Also, 253c≤1012 implies c≤2531012≈4.00, so c can be 0, 1, 2, 3, or 4.
We check each possible c:
For c=0: b=n1012. Then b+c=b≤10 implies n1012≤10, so n≥101.2. But n≤22, contradiction. No solution.
For c=1: b=n759. Then b+c=b+1≤10 implies b≤9, so n759≤9 gives n≥84.333. Factorizing 759 = 3 × 11 × 23, divisors ≤22 are 1, 3, 11. But n≥84.333>22, no divisor satisfies. No solution.
For c=2: b=n506. Then b+c=b+2≤10 implies b≤8, so n506≤8 gives n≥63.25. Factorizing 506 = 2 × 11 × 23, divisors ≤22 are 1, 2, 11, 22. But n≥63.25>22, no divisor satisfies. No solution.
For c=3: b=n253. Then b+c=b+3≤10 implies b≤7, so n253≤7 gives n≥36.142. Factorizing 253 = 11 × 23, divisors ≤22 are 1, 11. But n≥36.142>22, no divisor satisfies. No solution.
For c=4: b=n0=0. Then b+c=0+4=4≤10, and a=10−0−4=6. The exponent is n⋅0+253⋅4=1012, which matches. This works for any n.
No other c yields a solution given n≤22. Thus, the only solution is a=6, b=0, c=4.
The coefficient is the multinomial coefficient:
(6,0,410)=6!0!4!10!
Since 0!=1, this simplifies to:
6!4!10!=(410)
as (410)=4!6!10!.
Comparing with the options:
A. 253C4
B. 10C4
C. 4n
D. 1
The coefficient (410) corresponds to option B.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 67MathematicsSection A • MCQstraight lines
+4 / -1
If a line L is perpendicular to the line 5x−y=1, and the area of the triangle formed by the line L and the coordinate axes is 5 sq units, then the distance of the line L from the line x+5y=0 is:
A
137 units
B
57 units
C
135 units
D
75 units
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
First, we need to find the slope of the given line 5x−y=1. To do this, we rearrange it into slope-intercept form y=mx+c.
Starting with 5x−y=1:
Subtract 5x from both sides: −y=−5x+1
Multiply both sides by −1: y=5x−1
So, the slope of this line is 5.
Since line L is perpendicular to this line, the product of their slopes must be −1. Let the slope of L be m. Then:
m×5=−1
Solving for m: m=−51
Thus, the slope of line L is −51.
The equation of line L can be written as y=−51x+b, where b is the y-intercept. To avoid fractions, multiply through by 5:
5y=−x+5b
Rearrange to standard form: x+5y=5b
Let c=5b, so the equation becomes:
x+5y=c (1)
Now, we find the intercepts of line L with the coordinate axes to use the area condition.
When x=0: 5y=c⇒y=5c (y-intercept)
When y=0: x=c (x-intercept)
The area of the triangle formed with the axes is given as 5 sq units. The area formula is 21×∣x-intercept∣×∣y-intercept∣. Since area is positive, we use absolute values:
21×∣c∣×5c=5
Since 5c=5∣c∣, this becomes:
21×∣c∣×5∣c∣=5
Simplify: 21×5∣c∣2=5
Because ∣c∣2=c2, we have:
10c2=5
Multiply both sides by 10: c2=50
Take square roots: c=50 or c=−50
Simplify: c=52 or c=−52
So, the possible equations for line L are:
x+5y=52 or x+5y=−52
Now, we need to find the distance from line L to the line x+5y=0.
Write both lines in the form ax+by+k=0:
The reference line is x+5y=0, so x+5y+0=0.
For the first case, x+5y−52=0.
For the second case, x+5y+52=0 (since x+5y=−52 implies x+5y+52=0).
The distance d between two parallel lines ax+by+c1=0 and ax+by+c2=0 is:
d=a2+b2∣c1−c2∣
Here, a=1, b=5, so a2+b2=12+52=26.
For the first line L: x+5y−52=0, so c1=−52. The reference line has c2=0.
Distance: d1=26∣−52−0∣=2652
For the second line L: x+5y+52=0, so c1=52.
Distance: d2=26∣52−0∣=2652
Both distances are the same. Simplify:
2652=5262=5131=135
Alternatively, 2652=2×1352=2×1352=135
So, the distance is 135 units.
Comparing with the options:
A. 137
B. 57
C. 135
D. 75
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 68MathematicsSection A • MCQstraight lines
+4 / -1
The circumcentre of a triangle lies at the origin and its centroid is the midpoint of the line segment joining the points (a2+1,a2+1) and (2a,−2a), a=0. Then for any a, the orthocentre of this triangle lies on the line:
A
y−(a2+1)x=0
B
y−2ax=0
C
y+x=0
D
(a−1)2x−(a+1)2y=0
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The circumcentre of the triangle is at the origin, denoted as O(0,0). The centroid G is given as the midpoint of the line segment joining the points (a2+1,a2+1) and (2a,−2a), where a=0.
Using the midpoint formula, the coordinates of the centroid G are calculated as follows:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
x_G = \frac{(a…" style="color:#cc0000">$
x_G = \frac{(a^2 + 1) + (2a)}{2} = \frac{a^2 + 2a + 1}{2}$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
y_G = \frac{(a…" style="color:#cc0000">$
y_G = \frac{(a^2 + 1) + (-2a)}{2} = \frac{a^2 - 2a + 1}{2}$
Simplifying the expressions:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
a^2 + 2a + 1 =…" style="color:#cc0000">$
a^2 + 2a + 1 = (a + 1)^2$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
a^2 - 2a + 1 =…" style="color:#cc0000">$
a^2 - 2a + 1 = (a - 1)^2$
So,
' in math mode at position 1:̲
x_G = \frac{(a…" style="color:#cc0000">$
x_G = \frac{(a + 1)^2}{2}$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
y_G = \frac{(a…" style="color:#cc0000">$
y_G = \frac{(a - 1)^2}{2}$
In any triangle, the centroid divides the line segment joining the orthocentre H and circumcentre O in the ratio 2:1, with the centroid closer to the orthocentre. The vector relation is:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\overrightarro…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\overrightarrow{G} = \frac{2\overrightarrow{O} + \overrightarrow{H}}{3}$
Since the circumcentre is at the origin, O=0, so:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\overrightarro…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\overrightarrow{G} = \frac{\overrightarrow{H}}{3}$
Thus,
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\overrightarro…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\overrightarrow{H} = 3\overrightarrow{G}$
Therefore, the coordinates of the orthocentre H are three times the coordinates of the centroid G:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
x_H = 3 \times…" style="color:#cc0000">$
x_H = 3 \times x_G = 3 \times \frac{(a + 1)^2}{2} = \frac{3(a + 1)^2}{2}$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
y_H = 3 \times…" style="color:#cc0000">$
y_H = 3 \times y_G = 3 \times \frac{(a - 1)^2}{2} = \frac{3(a - 1)^2}{2}$
So, H is at (23(a+1)2,23(a−1)2).
The problem requires finding the line on which H lies for any a=0. Substituting the coordinates of H into each option will determine which equation is satisfied identically for all a.
Option A: y−(a2+1)x=0
Substitute xH and yH:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
y_H - (a^2 + 1…" style="color:#cc0000">$
y_H - (a^2 + 1)x_H = \frac{3(a - 1)^2}{2} - (a^2 + 1) \cdot \frac{3(a + 1)^2}{2} = \frac{3}{2} \left[ (a - 1)^2 - (a^2 + 1)(a + 1)^2 \right]$
Expand:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
(a - 1)^2 = a^…" style="color:#cc0000">$
(a - 1)^2 = a^2 - 2a + 1$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
(a + 1)^2 = a^…" style="color:#cc0000">$
(a + 1)^2 = a^2 + 2a + 1$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
(a - 1)^2 - (a…" style="color:#cc0000">$
(a - 1)^2 - (a^2 + 1)(a + 1)^2 = (a^2 - 2a + 1) - (a^4 + 2a^3 + 2a^2 + 2a + 1) = -a^4 - 2a^3 - a^2 - 4a$
This is not zero for all a, so Option A is incorrect.
Option B: y−2ax=0
Substitute xH and yH:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
y_H - 2a x_H =…" style="color:#cc0000">$
y_H - 2a x_H = \frac{3(a - 1)^2}{2} - 2a \cdot \frac{3(a + 1)^2}{2} = \frac{3}{2} \left[ (a - 1)^2 - 2a (a + 1)^2 \right]$
Expand:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
(a - 1)^2 = a^…" style="color:#cc0000">$
(a - 1)^2 = a^2 - 2a + 1$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
2a (a + 1)^2 =…" style="color:#cc0000">$
2a (a + 1)^2 = 2a (a^2 + 2a + 1) = 2a^3 + 4a^2 + 2a$
So,
' in math mode at position 1:̲
(a - 1)^2 - 2a…" style="color:#cc0000">$
(a - 1)^2 - 2a (a + 1)^2 = (a^2 - 2a + 1) - (2a^3 + 4a^2 + 2a) = -2a^3 - 3a^2 - 4a + 1$
This is not zero for all a, so Option B is incorrect.
Option C: y+x=0
Substitute xH and yH:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
y_H + x_H = \f…" style="color:#cc0000">$
y_H + x_H = \frac{3(a - 1)^2}{2} + \frac{3(a + 1)^2}{2} = \frac{3}{2} \left[ (a - 1)^2 + (a + 1)^2 \right]$
Expand:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
(a - 1)^2 + (a…" style="color:#cc0000">$
(a - 1)^2 + (a + 1)^2 = (a^2 - 2a + 1) + (a^2 + 2a + 1) = 2a^2 + 2$
So,
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\frac{3}{2} \t…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\frac{3}{2} \times (2a^2 + 2) = 3(a^2 + 1)$
This equals zero only if a2+1=0, which is not true for real a, so Option C is incorrect.
Option D: (a−1)2x−(a+1)2y=0
Substitute xH and yH:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
(a - 1)^2 x_H …" style="color:#cc0000">$
(a - 1)^2 x_H - (a + 1)^2 y_H = (a - 1)^2 \cdot \frac{3(a + 1)^2}{2} - (a + 1)^2 \cdot \frac{3(a - 1)^2}{2}$
Factor out 23:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
= \frac{3}{2} …" style="color:#cc0000">$
= \frac{3}{2} (a - 1)^2 (a + 1)^2 - \frac{3}{2} (a + 1)^2 (a - 1)^2 = 0$
This is identically zero for all a=0, so the orthocentre H lies on this line for any a.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 69MathematicsSection A • MCQcircles
+4 / -1
The equation of the circle described on the chord 3x+y+5=0 of the circle x2+y2=16 as the diameter is:
A
x2+y2+3x+y+1=0
B
x2+y2+3x+y−22=0
C
x2+y2+3x+y−11=0
D
x2+y2+3x+y−2=0
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The given circle is x2+y2=16, which has center (0,0) and radius 4. The chord 3x+y+5=0 is given, and we need to find the circle that has this chord as its diameter.
First, we find the points where the chord intersects the given circle. These points will be the endpoints of the diameter for the new circle. Substitute y=−3x−5 from the chord equation into the circle equation:
x2+(−3x−5)2=16
Expand the expression:
x2+(9x2+30x+25)=16
Combine like terms:
10x2+30x+25=16
Bring all terms to one side:
10x2+30x+25−16=0
10x2+30x+9=0
Solve this quadratic equation using the quadratic formula, where a=10, b=30, c=9:
x=2a−b±b2−4ac
Calculate the discriminant:
D=b2−4ac=302−4×10×9=900−360=540
So,
x=20−30±540
Simplify 540:
540=36×15=615
Thus,
x=20−30±615=10−15±315
So the x-coordinates are:
x1=10−15+315,x2=10−15−315
Now find the corresponding y-coordinates using y=−3x−5:
Comparing with the options, this matches option C.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 70MathematicsSection A • MCQparabola
+4 / -1
A chord is drawn through the focus of the parabola y2=6x such that its distance from the vertex of this parabola is 25, then its slope can be:
A
25
B
32
C
23
D
52
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The given parabola is y2=6x. Comparing this with the standard form y2=4ax, we find 4a=6, so a=23. The focus of the parabola is at (23,0), and the vertex is at (0,0).
A chord is drawn through the focus (23,0) with slope m. The equation of this chord is:
y−0=m(x−23)
which simplifies to:
y=m(x−23)
Rewriting this in the standard form ax+by+c=0:
mx−y−23m=0
Here, a=m, b=−1, and c=−23m.
The perpendicular distance from the vertex (0,0) to this line is given by the formula:
distance=a2+b2∣a⋅0+b⋅0+c∣=m2+(−1)2∣−23m∣=m2+123∣m∣=2m2+13∣m∣
This distance is given as 25. So:
2m2+13∣m∣=25
Multiplying both sides by 2:
m2+13∣m∣=5
Since the options are positive, assume m>0 (the solution will account for both signs later). Thus, ∣m∣=m:
m2+13m=5
Squaring both sides to eliminate the square root:
(m2+13m)2=(5)2m2+19m2=5
Cross-multiplying:
9m2=5(m2+1)9m2=5m2+5
Bringing all terms to one side:
9m2−5m2−5=04m2−5=04m2=5m2=45m=±25
The slopes are 25 and −25. Now, verify these satisfy the original distance condition.
For m=25:
distance=2(25)2+1325=245+13⋅25=245+44235=249235=2⋅23235=3235=235⋅31=25
For m=−25:
distance=2(−25)2+13−25=245+13⋅25=same as above=25
Both slopes satisfy the distance condition. Now, check if the chord intersects the parabola. For m=25, substitute into the parabola y2=6x:
y=25(x−23)[25(x−23)]2=6x45(x−23)2=6x
Multiply by 4:
5(x−23)2=24x5(x2−3x+49)=24x5x2−15x+445=24x5x2−15x−24x+445=05x2−39x+445=0
Multiply by 4:
20x2−156x+45=0
Discriminant:
d=(−156)2−4⋅20⋅45=24336−3600=2073620736=144(1442=20736)
Real roots exist. Similarly, for m=−25, the chord intersects the parabola.
Among the options, 25 is option A. The other options do not satisfy the distance condition:
- Option B: m=32 gives distance ≈1.134=25≈1.118
- Option C: m=23 gives distance ≈0.982=25
- Option D: m=52 gives distance =1=25
Hence, the slope can be 25, which is option A.
So, the answer is Option A.
Q 71MathematicsSection A • MCQhyperbola
+4 / -1
The tangent at an extremity (in the first quadrant) of the latus rectum of the hyperbola 4x2−5y2=1, meets the x-axis and y-axis at A and B, respectively. Then OA2−OB2, where O is the origin, equals:
A
−920
B
916
C
4
D
−34
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The given hyperbola is 4x2−5y2=1. Comparing this with the standard form a2x2−b2y2=1, we find a2=4 and b2=5, so a=2 and b=5.
The foci of the hyperbola are at (±c,0), where c=a2+b2=4+5=9=3. Thus, the foci are (3,0) and (−3,0).
We need the extremity of the latus rectum in the first quadrant. The latus rectum through the focus (3,0) is perpendicular to the x-axis, so its equation is x=3. Substituting x=3 into the hyperbola equation:
4(3)2−5y2=1⟹49−5y2=1.
Rearranging terms:
49−1=5y2⟹45=5y2.
Solving for y2:
y2=45×5=425,
so y=±25. The extremities are (3,25) and (3,−25). The first quadrant point is (3,25).
The tangent to the hyperbola a2x2−b2y2=1 at a point (x1,y1) is given by a2xx1−b2yy1=1. Substituting a2=4, b2=5, x1=3, and y1=25:
4x⋅3−5y⋅25=1.
Simplifying the second term:
5y⋅25=25y×51=2y,
so the equation becomes:
43x−2y=1.
Multiplying through by 4 to clear denominators:
4×43x−4×2y=4×1⟹3x−2y=4.
Thus, the tangent equation is 3x−2y=4.
This tangent meets the x-axis at A (where y=0):
3x−2(0)=4⟹3x=4⟹x=34,
so A is (34,0).
It meets the y-axis at B (where x=0):
3(0)−2y=4⟹−2y=4⟹y=−2,
so B is (0,−2).
O is the origin (0,0). Now, compute OA2 and OB2:
OA is the distance from O to A (34,0), so OA=34 and OA2=(34)2=916.
OB is the distance from O to B (0,−2), so OB=2 and OB2=22=4.
Therefore,
OA2−OB2=916−4=916−936=−920.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 72MathematicsSection A • MCQmathematical reasoning
+4 / -1
The contrapositive of the statement "if I am not feeling well, then I will go to the doctor" is:
A
if I will go to the doctor, then I am not feeling well.
B
if I am feeling well, then I will not go to the doctor.
C
if I will not go to the doctor, then I am feeling well.
D
if I will go to the doctor, then I am feeling well.
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To solve this problem, we need to find the contrapositive of the given statement: "if I am not feeling well, then I will go to the doctor."
First, recall that for any conditional statement of the form "If P, then Q," the contrapositive is "If not Q, then not P." The contrapositive is logically equivalent to the original statement.
Identify the components of the given statement:
P: "I am not feeling well"
Q: "I will go to the doctor"
So the statement is: If P, then Q.
Now, form the contrapositive: If not Q, then not P.
Determine not Q and not P:
not Q: Negation of "I will go to the doctor" is "I will not go to the doctor."
not P: Negation of "I am not feeling well" is "I am feeling well" (since two negatives cancel out).
Therefore, the contrapositive is: "If I will not go to the doctor, then I am feeling well."
Now, compare this with the options:
Option A: "if I will go to the doctor, then I am not feeling well" → This is "If Q, then P," which is the converse, not the contrapositive.
Option B: "if I am feeling well, then I will not go to the doctor" → This is "If not P, then not Q," which is the inverse, not the contrapositive.
Option C: "if I will not go to the doctor, then I am feeling well" → This matches our contrapositive exactly: "If not Q, then not P."
Option D: "if I will go to the doctor, then I am feeling well" → This is "If Q, then not P," which is neither the contrapositive nor logically equivalent.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 73MathematicsSection A • MCQstatistics
+4 / -1
Let xˉ, M and σ2 be respectively the mean, mode and variance of n observations x1,x2,…,xn and di=−xi−a, i = 1, 2, ..., n, where a is any number. Statement I: Variance of d1, d2, ..., dn is σ2. Statement II: Mean and mode of d1, d2, ..., dn are −xˉ−a and −M−a, respectively.
A
Statement I and Statement II are both true
B
Statement I and Statement II are both false
C
Statement I is true and Statement II is false
D
Statement I is false and Statement II is true
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given n observations x1,x2,…,xn with mean xˉ, mode M, and variance σ2. We define new observations di=−xi−a for i=1,2,…,n, where a is any constant. We need to verify two statements about the mean, mode, and variance of the di observations.
First, let's find the mean of the di observations. The mean dˉ is calculated as follows:
Next, let's find the mode of the di observations. The mode is the value that appears most frequently in the data. Since di=−xi−a, each value in the original data is negated and shifted by −a. If M is the mode of the original data, meaning M occurs most frequently, then −M−a will occur with the same frequency in the new data because the transformation is one-to-one. Therefore, the mode of di is −M−a.
Now, let's check the variance of the di observations. The variance σd2 is given by:
Statement I claims that the variance of di is σ2, which we have confirmed. Statement II claims that the mean is −xˉ−a and the mode is −M−a, both of which we have also confirmed. Therefore, both statements are true.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 74MathematicsSection A • MCQmatrices and determinants
+4 / -1
Let A and B be any two 3×3 matrices. If A is symmetric and B is skew symmetric, then the matrix AB − BA is:
A
skew symmetric
B
I or −I, where I is an identity matrix
C
symmetric
D
neither symmetric nor skew symmetric
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given that A is a symmetric matrix and B is a skew symmetric matrix, both of size 3×3. We need to determine the nature of the matrix C=AB−BA.
Recall the definitions:
A symmetric matrix satisfies AT=A.
A skew symmetric matrix satisfies BT=−B.
To determine if C is symmetric, skew symmetric, or neither, we compute its transpose CT and compare it to C and −C.
Start with C=AB−BA. The transpose of a difference is the difference of transposes, so:
CT=(AB−BA)T=(AB)T−(BA)T.
Using the property (XY)T=YTXT for any matrices X and Y, we get:
CT=(AB)T−(BA)T=BTAT−ATBT.
Substitute the properties of A and B:
Since A is symmetric, AT=A.
Since B is skew symmetric, BT=−B.
So, replace AT with A and BT with −B:
CT=(−B)A−A(−B).
Simplify the expression:
CT=−BA−(−AB)(since A(−B)=−AB).
CT=−BA+AB.
CT=AB−BA.
Note that AB−BA is the same as AB−BA, which is exactly C. Therefore:
CT=AB−BA=C.
Since CT=C, the matrix C is symmetric.
Now, verify with the options:
A. skew symmetric: This would require CT=−C, but we have CT=C, so not skew symmetric.
B. I or −I: This is not necessarily true, as C depends on A and B and may not be a multiple of the identity matrix.
C. symmetric: Matches our result CT=C.
D. neither symmetric nor skew symmetric: But we found it is symmetric.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 75MathematicsSection A • MCQmatrices and determinants
+4 / -1
If Δr=r2n21n(n−1)2r−1n−1(n−1)23r−2a21(n−1)(3n+4), then the value of ∑r=1n−1Δr:
The sum S=0, which is a constant independent of both a and n.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 76MathematicsSection A • MCQinverse trigonometric functions
+4 / -1
The principal value of tan−1(cot443π) is:
A
4π
B
−4π
C
43π
D
−43π
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to find the principal value of tan−1(cot443π).
First, recall that cotθ=tan(2π−θ). So, we can write:
cot443π=tan(2π−443π)
Now, compute the expression inside the tangent:
2π−443π=42π−443π=42π−43π=4−41π
So, cot443π=tan(−441π).
Since tangent is an odd function, tan(−θ)=−tanθ, so:
tan(−441π)=−tan(441π)
Thus, cot443π=−tan(441π).
Next, simplify tan(441π). The tangent function has a period of π, so we reduce the angle modulo π.
Write 441π as:
441π=441π=10π+4π
because 10π=440π, and 441π−440π=4π.
Since tan(θ+kπ)=tanθ for any integer k, and 10π is a multiple of π (with k=10):
tan(10π+4π)=tan(4π)=1
Therefore, tan(441π)=1, and:
cot443π=−tan(441π)=−1
So, the expression becomes:
tan−1(cot443π)=tan−1(−1)
The principal value of tan−1(x) lies in the interval (−2π,2π). We know that tan(−4π)=−1, and −4π is within this interval. Hence, the principal value is −4π.
Now, comparing with the options:
A. 4π
B. −4π
C. 43π
D. −43π
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 77MathematicsSection A • MCQfunctions
+4 / -1
The function f(x)=∣sin4x∣+∣cos2x∣, is a periodic function with a fundamental period:
A
π
B
2π
C
4π
D
2π
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The function is f(x)=∣sin4x∣+∣cos2x∣. To find its fundamental period, we need the smallest positive T such that f(x+T)=f(x) for all x.
First, consider the individual terms. The function sin4x has a period of 42π=2π because the period of sin(bx) is b2π. Taking the absolute value, ∣sin4x∣, the period becomes half of that, which is 4π, since the absolute value reflects the negative part and makes the function repeat more frequently.
Similarly, the function cos2x has a period of 22π=π. Taking the absolute value, ∣cos2x∣, the period becomes half, which is 2π.
So, we have:
Period of ∣sin4x∣ is 4π.
Period of ∣cos2x∣ is 2π.
The sum f(x) will be periodic with a period that is a common multiple of these two periods. The fundamental period is the least common multiple (LCM) of 4π and 2π.
To find the LCM, set T=k⋅4π=m⋅2π for some integers k and m. Dividing both sides by π, we get 4k=2m. Multiplying both sides by 4 gives k=2m. The smallest positive integers satisfying this are m=1 and k=2. Substituting back, T=2⋅4π=2π (or T=1⋅2π=2π). Thus, the LCM is 2π, suggesting that 2π might be the fundamental period.
Now, verify if f(x+2π)=f(x):
Compute f(x+2π)=sin4(x+2π)+cos2(x+2π).
Simplify the arguments:
4(x+2π)=4x+2π, so sin(4x+2π)=sin4x (since sine has period 2π), and ∣sin(4x+2π)∣=∣sin4x∣.
2(x+2π)=2x+π, so cos(2x+π)=−cos2x (since cos(θ+π)=−cosθ), and ∣cos(2x+π)∣=∣−cos2x∣=∣cos2x∣.
Thus, f(x+2π)=∣sin4x∣+∣cos2x∣=f(x), confirming that 2π is a period.
Next, check if it is the fundamental period by testing smaller options. First, test T=4π:
Compute f(x+4π)=sin4(x+4π)+cos2(x+4π).
Simplify the arguments:
4(x+4π)=4x+π, so sin(4x+π)=−sin4x, and ∣sin(4x+π)∣=∣−sin4x∣=∣sin4x∣.
2(x+4π)=2x+2π, so cos(2x+2π)=−sin2x (since cos(θ+2π)=−sinθ), and cos(2x+2π)=∣−sin2x∣=∣sin2x∣.
Thus, f(x+4π)=∣sin4x∣+∣sin2x∣, which is not equal to f(x)=∣sin4x∣+∣cos2x∣ for all x. For example, at x=0:
f(0)=∣sin0∣+∣cos0∣=0+1=1.
f(4π)=∣sinπ∣+cos2π=∣0∣+∣0∣=0 (which is f(0+4π) at x=0).
Since 1=0, T=4π is not a period.
Now, test T=8π:
Compute f(x+8π)=sin4(x+8π)+cos2(x+8π).
Simplify the arguments:
4(x+8π)=4x+2π, so sin(4x+2π)=cos4x, and sin(4x+2π)=∣cos4x∣.
2(x+8π)=2x+4π, so cos(2x+4π) remains as is.
Thus, f(x+8π)=∣cos4x∣+cos(2x+4π), which is not equal to f(x). For example, at x=0:
At x=8π, f(8π)=sin2π+cos4π=∣1∣+22=1+22≈1.707.
At x=4π, f(4π)=∣sinπ∣+cos2π=∣0∣+∣0∣=0.
At x=83π, f(83π)=sin23π+cos43π=∣−1∣+−22=1+22≈1.707.
At x=2π, f(2π)=∣sin2π∣+∣cosπ∣=∣0∣+∣−1∣=1.
The function starts at 1, increases to approximately 1.707 at 8π, decreases to 0 at 4π, increases to approximately 1.707 at 83π, and returns to 1 at 2π. This pattern repeats every 2π, and no smaller period matches the values at all points.
Therefore, the fundamental period is 2π.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 78MathematicsSection A • MCQfunctions
+4 / -1
Let f:R→R be defined by f(x)=∣x∣+1∣x∣−1, then f is:
A
one-one but not onto
B
neither one-one nor onto
C
both one-one and onto
D
onto but not one-one
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given a function f:R→R defined by f(x)=∣x∣+1∣x∣−1. We need to determine if this function is one-one (injective), onto (surjective), both, or neither. A function is one-one if different inputs always give different outputs, meaning if f(a)=f(b), then a=b. A function is onto if every element in the codomain is mapped to by some element in the domain, meaning for every real number y, there exists some x such that f(x)=y. The codomain here is all real numbers, R.
First, we check if the function is one-one. Notice that the expression depends on ∣x∣, which is always non-negative. For any x, ∣x∣=∣−x∣, so let us compute f(−x):
f(−x)=∣−x∣+1∣−x∣−1=∣x∣+1∣x∣−1=f(x).
This shows that f(−x)=f(x) for all x. Therefore, for any x=0, we have f(x)=f(−x), but x and −x are different if x=0. For example, let x=1:
f(1)=∣1∣+1∣1∣−1=1+11−1=20=0.
Now, f(−1)=∣−1∣+1∣−1∣−1=1+11−1=20=0. So f(1)=f(−1)=0, but 1=−1. Since two different inputs (1 and −1) give the same output (0), the function is not one-one.
Next, we check if the function is onto. To be onto, for every real number y, there must be some x such that f(x)=y. Since f(x) depends only on ∣x∣, we set t=∣x∣≥0. Then the function becomes:
g(t)=t+1t−1,t≥0.
We need to find the range of g(t) as t varies from 0 to infinity. This range will be the same as the range of f(x), because for each t≥0, there is at least one x (for example, x=t or x=−t) such that ∣x∣=t.
Evaluate g(t) at key points:
When t=0: g(0)=0+10−1=1−1=−1.
When t=1: g(1)=1+11−1=20=0.
As t→∞: g(t)=t+1t−1=1+t11−t1→1+01−0=1.
Now, check if g(t) can equal 1: set t+1t−1=1. Then t−1=t+1, which simplifies to −1=1, a contradiction. So g(t)=1 for any t≥0.
To see how g(t) behaves, compute its derivative. Let g(t)=t+1t−1. Using the quotient rule:
Since (t+1)2>0 for all t≥0, we have g′(t)>0, so g(t) is strictly increasing for t≥0.
As t increases from 0 to infinity, g(t) increases continuously from g(0)=−1 to the limit 1 (but never reaches 1). Therefore, the range of g(t) is all real numbers from -1 inclusive to 1 exclusive, denoted as [−1,1).
Since f(x) has the same range [−1,1), we can see that:
y=−1 is achieved when x=0 (since f(0)=∣0∣+1∣0∣−1=1−1=−1).
Values between -1 and 1 are achieved; for example, for y=0.5, solve t+1t−1=0.5:
t−1=0.5(t+1)⟹t−1=0.5t+0.5⟹t−0.5t=0.5+1⟹0.5t=1.5⟹t=3.
So ∣x∣=3, meaning x=3 or x=−3, and f(3)=∣3∣+1∣3∣−1=3+13−1=42=0.5.
But y=1 is not achieved, as shown earlier.
Now, consider values outside [−1,1). For example, y=2:
Set f(x)=2: ∣x∣+1∣x∣−1=2⟹∣x∣−1=2(∣x∣+1)⟹∣x∣−1=2∣x∣+2⟹−1−2=2∣x∣−∣x∣⟹−3=∣x∣. But ∣x∣≥0, so ∣x∣=−3 is impossible. Similarly, for y=−2: ∣x∣+1∣x∣−1=−2⟹∣x∣−1=−2(∣x∣+1)⟹∣x∣−1=−2∣x∣−2⟹∣x∣+2∣x∣=−2+1⟹3∣x∣=−1, again impossible.
Thus, the range of f is [−1,1), which is a proper subset of the codomain R. For instance, y=1 and y=2 are in R but not in the range. Therefore, f is not onto.
Since f is not one-one and not onto, it is neither injective nor surjective.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 79MathematicsSection A • MCQlimits continuity and differentiability
+4 / -1
If the function f(x)={(π−x)22+cosx−1,k,x=πx=π is continuous at x=π, then k equals:
A
41
B
0
C
2
D
21
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To ensure the function f(x) is continuous at x=π, the limit as x approaches π must equal the value of the function at x=π, which is k. Therefore, we need to evaluate:
limx→π(π−x)22+cosx−1=k
As x approaches π, the numerator 2+cosx−1 approaches 2+cosπ−1=2+(−1)−1=1−1=0, and the denominator (π−x)2 approaches 0. This results in a 00 indeterminate form, so we can use L'Hôpital's rule or a substitution to simplify.
Substitute t=π−x. As x→π, t→0. Also, cosx=cos(π−t)=−cost. The expression becomes:
limt→0t22−cost−1
At t=0, the numerator is 2−cos0−1=2−1−1=1−1=0 and the denominator is 0, confirming the 00 form. Apply L'Hôpital's rule by differentiating the numerator and denominator with respect to t.
We know limt→0tsint=1. For the second limit, as t→0, cost→1, so 2−cost→1, and 2−cost→1. Thus:
limt→02−cost1=11=1
Therefore, the limit is:
41⋅1⋅1=41
So, limx→πf(x)=41. For continuity at x=π, f(π)=k must equal this limit:
k=41
Comparing with the options:
A. 41
B. 0
C. 2
D. 21
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 80MathematicsSection A • MCQlimits continuity and differentiability
+4 / -1
Let f:R→R be a function such that ∣f(x)∣≤x2, for all x∈R. Then, at x = 0, f is:
A
differentiable but not continuous
B
neither continuous nor differentiable
C
continuous as well as differentiable
D
continuous but not differentiable
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given a function f:R→R such that ∣f(x)∣≤x2 for all real numbers x. We need to analyze the behavior of f at x=0, specifically checking continuity and differentiability.
First, let us check continuity at x=0. For continuity, we require that limx→0f(x)=f(0).
From the given condition, ∣f(x)∣≤x2, which implies −x2≤f(x)≤x2 for all x. Now, consider the limits as x approaches 0:
limx→0(−x2)=0andlimx→0x2=0.
By the Squeeze Theorem, since f(x) is sandwiched between −x2 and x2, both of which approach 0 as x→0, we have:
limx→0f(x)=0.
Now, what is f(0)? Using the given condition at x=0:
∣f(0)∣≤(0)2=0.
Since the absolute value is non-negative and bounded above by 0, we must have ∣f(0)∣=0, which implies f(0)=0. Therefore,
limx→0f(x)=0=f(0),
so f is continuous at x=0.
Next, we check differentiability at x=0. The derivative at 0 exists if the following limit exists:
For h=0, we can divide both sides by ∣h∣ (which is positive):
∣h∣∣f(h)∣≤∣h∣h2=∣h∣.
Since ∣h∣∣f(h)∣=hf(h), we get:
hf(h)≤∣h∣.
This implies:
−∣h∣≤hf(h)≤∣h∣.
Now, take the limit as h→0:
limh→0(−∣h∣)=0andlimh→0∣h∣=0.
By the Squeeze Theorem,
limh→0hf(h)=0.
Therefore, the limit exists and equals 0, so f′(0)=0. Hence, f is differentiable at x=0.
In conclusion, at x=0, the function f is both continuous and differentiable.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 81MathematicsSection A • MCQapplication of derivatives
+4 / -1
If the volume of a spherical ball is increasing at the rate of 4π cc/sec then the rate of increase of its radius (in cm/sec), when the volume is 288π cc is:
A
91
B
61
C
241
D
361
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The volume V of a sphere is given by the formula V=34πr3, where r is the radius. We are given that the volume is increasing at a rate of dtdV=4π cc/sec. We need to find the rate of increase of the radius, dtdr, when the volume is V=288π cc.
First, differentiate the volume formula with respect to time t. Using the chain rule, the derivative of V with respect to t is:
dtdV=dtd(34πr3)
Since 34π is a constant, it can be factored out:
dtdV=34π⋅dtd(r3)
The derivative of r3 with respect to t is 3r2dtdr by the chain rule. Substituting this in:
dtdV=34π⋅3r2dtdr
Simplify the expression:
dtdV=4πr2dtdr
We know dtdV=4π cc/sec. Substitute this value:
4π=4πr2dtdr
Divide both sides by 4π (assuming π=0):
4π4π=r2dtdr
1=r2dtdr
Therefore, solving for dtdr:
dtdr=r21
Now, we need to find r when V=288π cc. Using the volume formula:
V=34πr3
Substitute V=288π:
288π=34πr3
Divide both sides by π:
288=34r3
Multiply both sides by 3 to eliminate the denominator:
288×3=4r3
864=4r3
Divide both sides by 4:
4864=r3
216=r3
Take the cube root of both sides:
r=3216
Since 6×6×6=216, we have:
r=6 cm
Now substitute r=6 into the expression for dtdr:
dtdr=621=361
Thus, the rate of increase of the radius is 361 cm/sec.
Comparing with the options, 361 corresponds to Option D.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 82MathematicsSection A • MCQapplication of derivatives
+4 / -1
If non-zero real numbers b and c are such that minf(x)>maxg(x), where f(x)=x2+2bx+2c2 and g(x)=−x2−2cx+b2, (x∈R); then bc lies in the interval:
A
(2,∞)
B
[21,21)
C
(0,21)
D
[21,2]
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given two quadratic functions: f(x)=x2+2bx+2c2 and g(x)=−x2−2cx+b2, where b and c are non-zero real numbers. The condition is that the minimum value of f(x) is greater than the maximum value of g(x), written as minf(x)>maxg(x). We need to find the interval for bc.
First, recall that for a quadratic function ax2+bx+c, the vertex occurs at x=−2ab. If a>0, the parabola opens upwards and the vertex is the minimum point. If a<0, it opens downwards and the vertex is the maximum point.
For f(x)=x2+2bx+2c2, the coefficient of x2 is a=1, which is positive. So, it has a minimum value at the vertex. The x-coordinate of the vertex is:
x=−2⋅12b=−22b=−b
Substitute x=−b into f(x) to find the minimum value:
f(−b)=(−b)2+2b(−b)+2c2=b2−2b2+2c2=−b2+2c2
So, minf(x)=−b2+2c2.
For g(x)=−x2−2cx+b2, the coefficient of x2 is a=−1, which is negative. So, it has a maximum value at the vertex. The x-coordinate of the vertex is:
x=−2⋅(−1)−2c=−−2−2c=−−22c=−c
Note: The formula is x=−2AB where B is the coefficient of x and A is the coefficient of x2. Here, A=−1 and B=−2c, so:
x=−2⋅(−1)(−2c)=−−2−2c=−−22c=−c
Substitute x=−c into g(x):
g(−c)=−(−c)2−2c(−c)+b2=−c2+2c2+b2=c2+b2
So, maxg(x)=b2+c2.
The condition minf(x)>maxg(x) gives:
−b2+2c2>b2+c2
Bring all terms to one side:
−b2+2c2−b2−c2>0
−2b2+c2>0
Rearrange:
c2−2b2>0
c2>2b2
Since b and c are non-zero real numbers, b2>0. Divide both sides by b2:
b2c2>2
(bc)2>2
Taking square roots on both sides (and noting that the square root function is increasing and bc is non-negative):
bc>2
Thus, bc lies in the interval (2,∞).
Now, comparing with the options:
A. (2,∞)
B. [21,21)
C. (0,21)
D. [21,2]
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 83MathematicsSection A • MCQindefinite integration
+4 / -1
If m is a non-zero number and ∫(x2m+xm+1)3x5m−1+2x4m−1dx=f(x)+c, then f(x) is equal to:
A
2m(x2m+xm+1)2(x5m−x4m)
B
2m1⋅(x2m+xm+1)2x4m
C
2m(x2m+xm+1)2x5m
D
(x2m+xm+1)22m(x5m+x4m)
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
I=∫(x2m+xm+1)3x5m−1+2x4m−1dx
x2m+xm+1=x2m(1+x2mxm+x2m1)=x2m(1+x−m+x−2m)
(x2m+xm+1)3=[x2m(1+x−m+x−2m)]3=x6m(1+x−m+x−2m)3
I=∫x6m(1+x−m+x−2m)3x5m−1+2x4m−1dx
I=∫(1+x−m+x−2m)3x6mx5m−1+x6m2x4m−1dx
I=∫(1+x−m+x−2m)3x−m−1+2x−2m−1dx
t=1+x−m+x−2m
dt=(0−m⋅x−m−1−2m⋅x−2m−1)dx
dt=−m(x−m−1+2x−2m−1)dx
(x−m−1+2x−2m−1)dx=−mdt
I=∫t3−mdt=−m1∫t−3dt
I=−m1(−2t−2)+c=2m⋅t21+c
I=2m(1+x−m+x−2m)21+c
1+x−m+x−2m=1+xm1+x2m1=x2mx2m+xm+1
I=2m(x2mx2m+xm+1)21+c
I=2m⋅(x2m)2(x2m+xm+1)21+c
I=2m1⋅(x2m+xm+1)2x4m+c
f(x)=2m1⋅(x2m+xm+1)2x4m
Q 84MathematicsSection A • MCQdefinite integration
+4 / -1
Let, the function F be defined as F(x)=∫1xtetdt, x>0, then the value of the integral ∫1xt+aetdt, where a > 0, is:
A
ea[F(x)−F(1+a)]
B
e−a[F(x+a)−F(a)]
C
ea[F(x+a)−F(1+a)]
D
e−a[F(x+a)−F(1+a)]
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given the function F(x)=∫1xtetdt for x>0, and we need to evaluate the integral ∫1xt+aetdt where a>0.
Notice that the integrand t+aet resembles the integrand in F(x), but with t shifted by a in the denominator. To simplify, we use the substitution u=t+a. Then, du=dt, and when t=1, u=1+a, and when t=x, u=x+a. Substituting these into the integral:
∫1xt+aetdt=∫1+ax+aueu−adu
Since eu−a=eu⋅e−a, we can rewrite the integral as:
∫1+ax+aueu⋅e−adu=e−a∫1+ax+aueudu
The integral ∫1+ax+aueudu can be expressed in terms of the function F. Recall that F(z)=∫1ztetdt. Changing the variable from t to u for clarity, F(u)=∫1usesds. Therefore:
∫1+ax+aueudu=F(x+a)−F(1+a)
This is because F(x+a)=∫1x+asesds and F(1+a)=∫11+asesds, so subtracting them gives the integral from 1+a to x+a.
Substituting back, we get:
e−a∫1+ax+aueudu=e−a[F(x+a)−F(1+a)]
Thus, the value of the integral ∫1xt+aetdt is e−a[F(x+a)−F(1+a)].
Comparing with the options:
Option A: ea[F(x)−F(1+a)]
Option B: e−a[F(x+a)−F(a)]
Option C: ea[F(x+a)−F(1+a)]
Option D: e−a[F(x+a)−F(1+a)]
Our result matches option D exactly.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 85MathematicsSection A • MCQarea under the curves
+4 / -1
The area of the region (in square units) above the x-axis bounded by the curve y=tanx, 0≤x≤2π and the tangent to the curve at x=4π is:
A
21(log2−21)
B
21(1+log2)
C
21(1−log2)
D
21(log2+21)
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The problem requires finding the area above the x-axis bounded by the curve y=tanx for 0≤x≤2π and the tangent to this curve at x=4π.
First, find the equation of the tangent at x=4π. The derivative of y=tanx is dxdy=sec2x. At x=4π, sec4π=2, so sec24π=(2)2=2. Thus, the slope of the tangent is 2. At x=4π, y=tan4π=1, so the point of tangency is (4π,1). Using the point-slope form, the equation of the tangent is:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
y - 1 = 2 \lef…" style="color:#cc0000">$
y - 1 = 2 \left( x - \frac{\pi}{4} \right)$
Simplifying:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
y - 1 = 2x - \…" style="color:#cc0000">$
y - 1 = 2x - \frac{\pi}{2}$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
y = 2x - \frac…" style="color:#cc0000">$
y = 2x - \frac{\pi}{2} + 1$
Next, find where this tangent intersects the x-axis by setting y=0:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
0 = 2x - \frac…" style="color:#cc0000">$
0 = 2x - \frac{\pi}{2} + 1$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
2x = \frac{\pi…" style="color:#cc0000">$
2x = \frac{\pi}{2} - 1$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
x = \frac{\fra…" style="color:#cc0000">$
x = \frac{\frac{\pi}{2} - 1}{2} = \frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{1}{2}$
So, the tangent intersects the x-axis at (4π−21,0). Denote a=4π−21 and b=4π.
The bounded region above the x-axis is enclosed by:
- The x-axis from (0,0) to (a,0)
- The tangent line from (a,0) to (4π,1)
- The curve y=tanx from (4π,1) back to (0,0)
To find the area, split the region at x=a:
- From x=0 to x=a, the upper boundary is y=tanx and the lower boundary is the x-axis (y=0).
- From x=a to x=b, the upper boundary is y=tanx and the lower boundary is the tangent line y=2x−2π+1.
The total area A is:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
A = \int_{0}^{…" style="color:#cc0000">$
A = \int_{0}^{a} \left[ \tan x - 0 \right] dx + \int_{a}^{b} \left[ \tan x - \left( 2x - \frac{\pi}{2} + 1 \right) \right] dx$
Compute each integral separately.
**First integral:** ∫0atanxdx
The antiderivative of tanx is −ln∣cosx∣. Since cosx>0 for x∈[0,2π), this simplifies to −ln(cosx). Evaluate from 0 to a:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\left[ -\ln (\…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\left[ -\ln (\cos x) \right]_{0}^{a} = -\ln (\cos a) - \left( -\ln (\cos 0) \right) = -\ln (\cos a) + \ln (1) = -\ln (\cos a)$
since cos0=1 and ln1=0.
Now, a=4π−21, so:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\cos a = \cos …" style="color:#cc0000">$
\cos a = \cos \left( \frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{1}{2} \right) = \cos \frac{\pi}{4} \cos \frac{1}{2} + \sin \frac{\pi}{4} \sin \frac{1}{2} = \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} \cos \frac{1}{2} + \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} \sin \frac{1}{2} = \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} \left( \cos \frac{1}{2} + \sin \frac{1}{2} \right)$
Thus:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\int_{0}^{a} \…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\int_{0}^{a} \tan x dx = -\ln \left( \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} \left( \cos \frac{1}{2} + \sin \frac{1}{2} \right) \right) = -\left[ \ln \left( \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} \right) + \ln \left( \cos \frac{1}{2} + \sin \frac{1}{2} \right) \right]$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\ln \left( \fr…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\ln \left( \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} \right) = \ln (\sqrt{2}) - \ln 2 = \frac{1}{2} \ln 2 - \ln 2 = -\frac{1}{2} \ln 2$
So:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\int_{0}^{a} \…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\int_{0}^{a} \tan x dx = -\left[ -\frac{1}{2} \ln 2 + \ln \left( \cos \frac{1}{2} + \sin \frac{1}{2} \right) \right] = \frac{1}{2} \ln 2 - \ln \left( \cos \frac{1}{2} + \sin \frac{1}{2} \right)$
**Second integral:** ∫ab[tanx−(2x−2π+1)]dx
Split into three parts:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\int_{a}^{b} \…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\int_{a}^{b} \tan x dx - \int_{a}^{b} \left( 2x - \frac{\pi}{2} + 1 \right) dx = \int_{a}^{b} \tan x dx - 2 \int_{a}^{b} x dx + \left( \frac{\pi}{2} - 1 \right) \int_{a}^{b} dx$
Compute each:
- ∫abtanxdx=[−ln(cosx)]ab=−ln(cosb)+ln(cosa)=ln(cosbcosa)
Since b=4π, cosb=cos4π=22, and cosa=22(cos21+sin21), so:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\frac{\cos a…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\frac{\cos a}{\cos b} = \frac{\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} \left( \cos \frac{1}{2} + \sin \frac{1}{2} \right)}{\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}} = \cos \frac{1}{2} + \sin \frac{1}{2}$
Thus:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\int_{a}^{b}…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\int_{a}^{b} \tan x dx = \ln \left( \cos \frac{1}{2} + \sin \frac{1}{2} \right)$
- ∫abxdx=[2x2]ab=2b2−a2' in math mode at position 1:̲
b = \frac{\p…" style="color:#cc0000">$
b = \frac{\pi}{4}, \quad a = \frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{1}{2}$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
b^2 = \left(…" style="color:#cc0000">$
b^2 = \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right)^2 = \frac{\pi^2}{16}$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
a^2 = \left(…" style="color:#cc0000">$
a^2 = \left( \frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{1}{2} \right)^2 = \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right)^2 - 2 \cdot \frac{\pi}{4} \cdot \frac{1}{2} + \left( \frac{1}{2} \right)^2 = \frac{\pi^2}{16} - \frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{1}{4}$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
b^2 - a^2 = …" style="color:#cc0000">$
b^2 - a^2 = \frac{\pi^2}{16} - \left( \frac{\pi^2}{16} - \frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{1}{4} \right) = \frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{1}{4}$
So:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\int_{a}^{b}…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\int_{a}^{b} x dx = \frac{1}{2} \left( \frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{1}{4} \right) = \frac{\pi - 1}{8}$
- ∫abdx=[x]ab=b−a=4π−(4π−21)=21
Now combine:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\int_{a}^{b} \…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\int_{a}^{b} \left[ \tan x - \left( 2x - \frac{\pi}{2} + 1 \right) \right] dx = \ln \left( \cos \frac{1}{2} + \sin \frac{1}{2} \right) - 2 \cdot \frac{\pi - 1}{8} + \left( \frac{\pi}{2} - 1 \right) \cdot \frac{1}{2}$
Simplify:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
-2 \cdot \frac…" style="color:#cc0000">$
-2 \cdot \frac{\pi - 1}{8} = -\frac{\pi - 1}{4}$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\left( \frac{\…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\left( \frac{\pi}{2} - 1 \right) \cdot \frac{1}{2} = \frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{1}{2}$
So:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\int_{a}^{b} \…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\int_{a}^{b} \left[ \tan x - \left( 2x - \frac{\pi}{2} + 1 \right) \right] dx = \ln \left( \cos \frac{1}{2} + \sin \frac{1}{2} \right) - \frac{\pi - 1}{4} + \frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{1}{2}$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
-\frac{\pi - 1…" style="color:#cc0000">$
-\frac{\pi - 1}{4} + \frac{\pi}{4} = -\frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{\pi}{4} = \frac{1}{4}$
Thus:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\int_{a}^{b} \…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\int_{a}^{b} \left[ \tan x - \left( 2x - \frac{\pi}{2} + 1 \right) \right] dx = \ln \left( \cos \frac{1}{2} + \sin \frac{1}{2} \right) + \frac{1}{4} - \frac{1}{2} = \ln \left( \cos \frac{1}{2} + \sin \frac{1}{2} \right) - \frac{1}{4}$
Now, the total area A is:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
A = \left[ \fr…" style="color:#cc0000">$
A = \left[ \frac{1}{2} \ln 2 - \ln \left( \cos \frac{1}{2} + \sin \frac{1}{2} \right) \right] + \left[ \ln \left( \cos \frac{1}{2} + \sin \frac{1}{2} \right) - \frac{1}{4} \right]$
The logarithmic terms cancel:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
A = \frac{1}{2…" style="color:#cc0000">$
A = \frac{1}{2} \ln 2 - \frac{1}{4}$
Factor out 21:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
A = \frac{1}{2…" style="color:#cc0000">$
A = \frac{1}{2} \left( \ln 2 - \frac{1}{2} \right)$
Comparing with the options:
- A: 21(log2−21)
- B: 21(1+log2)
- C: 21(1−log2)
- D: 21(log2+21)
Here, log denotes the natural logarithm (common in JEE contexts). Thus, option A matches the result.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 86MathematicsSection A • MCQdifferential equations
+4 / -1
If dxdy+ytanx=sin2x and y(0)=1, then y(π) is equal to:
A
−1
B
5
C
1
D
−5
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The given differential equation is:
dxdy+ytanx=sin2x
with the initial condition y(0)=1. This is a first-order linear differential equation of the form:
dxdy+P(x)y=Q(x)
where P(x)=tanx and Q(x)=sin2x. To solve it, we use an integrating factor (IF). The integrating factor is defined as:
IF=e∫P(x)dx=e∫tanxdx
First, compute ∫tanxdx:
∫tanxdx=∫cosxsinxdx
Let u=cosx, then du=−sinxdx, so:
∫cosxsinxdx=−∫udu=−ln∣u∣+C=−ln∣cosx∣+C
For the integrating factor, we ignore the constant and take the absolute value appropriately. Thus:
IF=e−ln∣cosx∣=eln(∣cosx∣1)=∣cosx∣1
Since cosx can be positive or negative, but for simplicity in solving, we often use secx=cosx1 and handle the domain. In the interval around 0, cosx>0, so we can write:
IF=secx
Multiply both sides of the differential equation by the integrating factor:
secx⋅dxdy+secx⋅ytanx=secx⋅sin2x
The left-hand side is the derivative of ysecx because:
dxd(ysecx)=secxdxdy+ysecxtanx
which matches the left-hand side. So:
dxd(ysecx)=secx⋅sin2x
Simplify the right-hand side. Since sin2x=2sinxcosx,
secx⋅sin2x=cosx1⋅2sinxcosx=2sinx
Thus:
dxd(ysecx)=2sinx
Integrate both sides with respect to x:
∫dxd(ysecx)dx=∫2sinxdx
ysecx=2∫sinxdx=2(−cosx)+C=−2cosx+C
where C is the constant of integration. Solve for y:
ysecx=−2cosx+C
Multiply both sides by cosx:
y=(−2cosx+C)cosx=−2cos2x+Ccosx
So:
y=Ccosx−2cos2x
Use the initial condition y(0)=1. When x=0, cos0=1:
y(0)=C⋅1−2⋅(1)2=C−2
Set equal to 1:
C−2=1
C=3
Substitute C=3 into the solution:
y=3cosx−2cos2x
Now evaluate y(π). When x=π, cosπ=−1:
y(π)=3⋅(−1)−2⋅(−1)2=−3−2⋅1=−3−2=−5
Hence, the correct answer is Option D.
Q 87MathematicsSection A • MCQvector algebra
+4 / -1
If x=3i^−6j^−k^, y=i^+4j^−3k^ and z=3i^−4j^−12k^, then the magnitude of the projection of x×y on z is:
A
14
B
12
C
15
D
10
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given three vectors:
x=3i^−6j^−k^
y=i^+4j^−3k^
z=3i^−4j^−12k^
We need to find the magnitude of the projection of x×y onto z. The magnitude of the projection of a vector a onto a vector b is given by ∣b∣∣a⋅b∣. Here, a=x×y and b=z, so the magnitude is ∣z∣∣(x×y)⋅z∣.
First, compute the cross product x×y. The cross product is found using the determinant formula:
x×y=i^31j^−64k^−1−3
Expanding along the first row:
i^−64−1−3−j^31−1−3+k^31−64
Compute each 2x2 determinant:
For i^: (−6)(−3)−(−1)(4)=18−(−4)=18+4=22
For j^: (3)(−3)−(−1)(1)=−9−(−1)=−9+1=−8, and with the negative sign from expansion, it becomes −(−8)=8
If the angle between the line 2(x+1)=y=z+4 and the plane 2x−y+λz+4=0 is 6π, then the value of λ is:
A
745
B
11135
C
7135
D
1145
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The given line is 2(x+1)=y=z+4. To find the direction ratios, express the line in symmetric form. Set 2(x+1)=y=z+4=k, where k is a parameter. Then, 2(x+1)=k gives x+1=2k, so x=2k−1. Also, y=k and z+4=k gives z=k−4. The direction ratios are the coefficients of k: 21 for x, 1 for y, and 1 for z. To avoid fractions, multiply by 2, giving direction ratios (1,2,2). Thus, the direction vector of the line is d=(1,2,2).
The plane equation is 2x−y+λz+4=0. The normal vector to the plane is n=(2,−1,λ).
The angle between the line and the plane is given as 6π. The formula for the sine of the angle θ between a line and a plane is sinθ=∣d∣∣n∣∣d⋅n∣. Here, θ=6π, so sin6π=21.
Compute the dot product d⋅n:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\vec{d} \cdot …" style="color:#cc0000">$
\vec{d} \cdot \vec{n} = (1)(2) + (2)(-1) + (2)(\sqrt{\lambda}) = 2 - 2 + 2\sqrt{\lambda} = 2\sqrt{\lambda}.$
Since λ must be non-negative (as it is under a square root), ∣d⋅n∣=∣2λ∣=2λ.
Compute the magnitudes:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
|\vec{d}| = \s…" style="color:#cc0000">$
|\vec{d}| = \sqrt{1^2 + 2^2 + 2^2} = \sqrt{1 + 4 + 4} = \sqrt{9} = 3,$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
|\vec{n}| = \s…" style="color:#cc0000">$
|\vec{n}| = \sqrt{2^2 + (-1)^2 + (\sqrt{\lambda})^2} = \sqrt{4 + 1 + \lambda} = \sqrt{5 + \lambda}.$
Substitute into the formula:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\sin \theta = …" style="color:#cc0000">$
\sin \theta = \frac{|\vec{d} \cdot \vec{n}|}{|\vec{d}| |\vec{n}|} \implies \frac{1}{2} = \frac{2\sqrt{\lambda}}{3 \sqrt{5 + \lambda}}.$
Solve for λ:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\frac{1}{2} = …" style="color:#cc0000">$
\frac{1}{2} = \frac{2\sqrt{\lambda}}{3 \sqrt{5 + \lambda}}.$
Multiply both sides by 35+λ:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\frac{1}{2} \c…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\frac{1}{2} \cdot 3 \sqrt{5 + \lambda} = 2\sqrt{\lambda} \implies \frac{3}{2} \sqrt{5 + \lambda} = 2\sqrt{\lambda}.$
Divide both sides by 2:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\frac{3}{4} \s…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\frac{3}{4} \sqrt{5 + \lambda} = \sqrt{\lambda}.$
Square both sides to eliminate the square roots:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\left(\frac{3}…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)^2 (5 + \lambda) = (\sqrt{\lambda})^2 \implies \frac{9}{16} (5 + \lambda) = \lambda.$
Multiply both sides by 16:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
9(5 + \lambda)…" style="color:#cc0000">$
9(5 + \lambda) = 16\lambda \implies 45 + 9\lambda = 16\lambda.$
Rearrange terms:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
45 = 16\lambda…" style="color:#cc0000">$
45 = 16\lambda - 9\lambda \implies 45 = 7\lambda \implies \lambda = \frac{45}{7}.$
Verify the solution by substituting λ=745 back into the equation before squaring. Left side: 435+745=43735+745=43780=43⋅780=43⋅745=735. Right side: 745=745=735. Both sides are equal, so the solution is valid.
Comparing with the options, λ=745 corresponds to Option A.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Q 89MathematicsSection A • MCQ3d geometry
+4 / -1
Equation of the line of the shortest distance between the lines 1x=−1y=1z and 0x−1=−2y+1=1z is:
A
−2x=1y=2z
B
1x=−1y=−2z
C
1x−1=−1y+1=−2z
D
1x−1=−1y+1=1z
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To find the equation of the line of the shortest distance between the two given lines, we first identify points and direction vectors for each line.
The first line is given as 1x=−1y=1z. This can be rewritten as 1x−0=−1y−0=1z−0. So, a point on this line is A(0,0,0), and the direction vector is d1=(1,−1,1).
The second line is 0x−1=−2y+1=1z. Since the denominator for x is 0, the x-coordinate is constant at 1. Letting the parameter be λ, we have x=1, y+1=−2λ so y=−1−2λ, and z=λ. Thus, a point on this line is B(1,−1,0), and the direction vector is d2=(0,−2,1).
The line of shortest distance is perpendicular to both given lines. Therefore, its direction vector d is the cross product of d1 and d2.
Compute d=d1×d2:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\vec{d} = \beg…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\vec{d} = \begin{vmatrix}
\hat{i} & \hat{j} & \hat{k} \\
1 & -1 & 1 \\
0 & -2 & 1 \\
\end{vmatrix}$
Expanding the determinant:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\hat{i} \left[…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\hat{i} \left[ (-1)(1) - (1)(-2) \right] - \hat{j} \left[ (1)(1) - (1)(0) \right] + \hat{k} \left[ (1)(-2) - (-1)(0) \right]$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
= \hat{i} \lef…" style="color:#cc0000">$
= \hat{i} \left[ -1 - (-2) \right] - \hat{j} \left[ 1 - 0 \right] + \hat{k} \left[ -2 - 0 \right]$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
= \hat{i} (1) …" style="color:#cc0000">$
= \hat{i} (1) - \hat{j} (1) + \hat{k} (-2)$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
= (1, -1, -2)" style="color:#cc0000">$
= (1, -1, -2)$
So, the direction vector of the line of shortest distance is (1,−1,−2).
Next, we find points where this line intersects the given lines. Let a point on the first line be P(t)=(t,−t,t), and a point on the second line be Q(s)=(1,−1−2s,s). The vector PQ is:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\overrightarro…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\overrightarrow{PQ} = (1 - t, (-1 - 2s) - (-t), s - t) = (1 - t, -1 - 2s + t, s - t)$
Since PQ is parallel to d=(1,−1,−2), it must be perpendicular to both d1 and d2.
First, PQ⋅d1=0:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
(1 - t)(1) + (…" style="color:#cc0000">$
(1 - t)(1) + (-1 - 2s + t)(-1) + (s - t)(1) = 0$
Simplify:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
1 - t + (1 + 2…" style="color:#cc0000">$
1 - t + (1 + 2s - t) + s - t = 0$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
1 - t + 1 + 2s…" style="color:#cc0000">$
1 - t + 1 + 2s - t + s - t = 0$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
2 + 3s - 3t = …" style="color:#cc0000">$
2 + 3s - 3t = 0$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
3s - 3t = -2" style="color:#cc0000">$
3s - 3t = -2$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
s - t = -\frac…" style="color:#cc0000">$
s - t = -\frac{2}{3} \quad \text{(Equation 1)}$
Second, PQ⋅d2=0:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
(1 - t)(0) + (…" style="color:#cc0000">$
(1 - t)(0) + (-1 - 2s + t)(-2) + (s - t)(1) = 0$
Simplify:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
0 + (-2)(-1 - …" style="color:#cc0000">$
0 + (-2)(-1 - 2s + t) + s - t = 0$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
2 + 4s - 2t + …" style="color:#cc0000">$
2 + 4s - 2t + s - t = 0$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
2 + 5s - 3t = …" style="color:#cc0000">$
2 + 5s - 3t = 0 \quad \text{(Equation 2)}$
Solve Equations 1 and 2 simultaneously. From Equation 1:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
t = s + \frac{…" style="color:#cc0000">$
t = s + \frac{2}{3}$
Substitute into Equation 2:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
2 + 5s - 3\lef…" style="color:#cc0000">$
2 + 5s - 3\left(s + \frac{2}{3}\right) = 0$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
2 + 5s - 3s - …" style="color:#cc0000">$
2 + 5s - 3s - 2 = 0$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
2s = 0" style="color:#cc0000">$
2s = 0$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
s = 0" style="color:#cc0000">$
s = 0$
Then:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
t = 0 + \frac{…" style="color:#cc0000">$
t = 0 + \frac{2}{3} = \frac{2}{3}$
So, point P is (32,−32,32) and point Q is (1,−1,0).
The line of shortest distance passes through Q(1,−1,0) with direction vector (1,−1,−2). Its equation is:
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\frac{x - 1}{1…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\frac{x - 1}{1} = \frac{y - (-1)}{-1} = \frac{z - 0}{-2}$
' in math mode at position 1:̲
\frac{x - 1}{1…" style="color:#cc0000">$
\frac{x - 1}{1} = \frac{y + 1}{-1} = \frac{z}{-2}$
Comparing with the options, this matches option C.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Q 90MathematicsSection A • MCQprobability
+4 / -1
Let A and E be any two events with positive probabilities. Statement I: P(E/A)≥P(A/E)P(E). Statement II: P(A/E)≥P(A∩E).
A
Both the statements are false
B
Both the statements are true
C
Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true
D
Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let us solve the given problem step by step. We have two events, A and E, both with positive probabilities. We need to evaluate two statements.
First, recall the definition of conditional probability. The conditional probability of E given A is defined as:
P(E∣A)=P(A)P(A∩E)
provided that P(A)>0. Similarly, the conditional probability of A given E is:
P(A∣E)=P(E)P(A∩E)
provided that P(E)>0. Since both events have positive probabilities, these definitions are valid.
Now, let us analyze Statement I: P(E∣A)≥P(A∣E)P(E).
Substitute the expressions for the conditional probabilities:
Left side: P(E∣A)=P(A)P(A∩E)
Right side: P(A∣E)P(E)=(P(E)P(A∩E))×P(E)=P(A∩E)
So, Statement I becomes:
P(A)P(A∩E)≥P(A∩E)
Let x=P(A∩E) and a=P(A). Since probabilities are non-negative, x≥0, and given that P(A)>0, a>0. Also, since P(A)≤1, a≤1. The inequality is:
ax≥x
We can rearrange this as:
ax−x≥0
x(a1−1)≥0
Since a≤1, a1≥1, so a1−1≥0. Also, x≥0. Therefore, the product x(a1−1) is non-negative. This holds for all values of x and a:
If x=0, both sides are 0, so 0≥0 is true.
If x>0, since a1−1≥0, the inequality holds.
Thus, Statement I is always true.
Now, consider Statement II: P(A∣E)≥P(A∩E).
Substitute the expression for P(A∣E):
P(A∣E)=P(E)P(A∩E)
So, Statement II becomes:
P(E)P(A∩E)≥P(A∩E)
Let x=P(A∩E) and e=P(E). Since P(E)>0, e>0, and P(E)≤1, so e≤1. The inequality is:
ex≥x
Rearrange this as:
ex−x≥0
x(e1−1)≥0
Since e≤1, e1≥1, so e1−1≥0. Also, x≥0. Therefore, the product x(e1−1) is non-negative. This holds for all values of x and e:
If x=0, both sides are 0, so 0≥0 is true.
If x>0, since e1−1≥0, the inequality holds.
Thus, Statement II is also always true.
Since both statements are true, the correct option is B.