Official NTA Question PaperFull Solved Paper2026Evening Shift
JEE Main 2026 23rd January Evening Shift Question Paper with Solutions
Official solved question paper for Joint Entrance Examination (Main). Review all 75 questions, official answer keys, and detailed step-by-step solutions below, or attempt online with timer and negative marking.
One mole of an ideal diatomic gas expands from volume V to 2V isothermally at a temperature 27oC and does W joule of work. lf the gas undergoes same magnitude of expansion adiabatically from 27oC doing the same amount of work W, then its final temperature will be (close to) ____ ∘C. (loge2=0.693)
A
-189
B
-117
C
-30
D
-56
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We have one mole of an ideal diatomic gas. We need to compare isothermal and adiabatic expansions from volume V to 2V, both starting at 27∘C (i.e., T=300 K).
For isothermal expansion of an ideal gas:
W=nRTln(ViVf)=1×R×300×ln2=300R×0.693
For an adiabatic process, the work done by the gas is:
W=γ−1nR(T1−T2)
For a diatomic gas, γ=57, so γ−1=52.
Since both processes do the same work W:
300R×0.693=2/5R(300−T2)
300×0.693=25(300−T2)
207.9=2.5(300−T2)
300−T2=2.5207.9=83.16
T2=300−83.16=216.84 K
T2=216.84−273≈−56∘C
The correct answer is Option 4: −56∘C.
Q 2PhysicsSection A • MCQproperties of matter
+4 / -1
A small metallic sphere of diameter 2 mm and density 10.5g/cm3 is dropped in glycerine having viscosity 10 Poise and density 1.5g/cm3 respectively. The terminal velocity attained by the sphere is __ cm/s. (π=722 and g=10m/s2)
A
1.5
B
2.0
C
1.0
D
3.0
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Using Stokes' law: vt=9η2r2(ρs−ρl)g
r = 1 mm = 0.1 cm, ρ_s = 10.5 g/cm³, ρ_l = 1.5 g/cm³, η = 10 P = 10 g/(cm·s), g = 1000 cm/s².
vt=9×102×0.01×9×1000=90180=2.0 cm/s
The answer is Option 2: 2.0 cm/s.
Q 3PhysicsSection A • MCQelectromagnetic induction
+4 / -1
Suppose a long solenoid of 100 cm length, radius 2 cm having 500 turns per unit length, carries a current I=10sin(ωt) A, where ω = 1000 rad/s. A circular conducting loop (B) of radius 1 cm coaxially slided through the solenoid at a speed v=1cm/s. The r.m.s. current through the loop when the coil B is inserted 10 cm inside the solenoid is α/2μA. The value of α is ______. [Resistance of the loop= 10Ω]
A
280
B
197
C
100
D
80
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Step 1: Magnetic field inside the long solenoid
The magnetic field B produced by a long solenoid is:
B=μ0nI
Given I=I0sin(ωt), we substitute this into the equation:
B=μ0nI0sin(ωt)
Step 2: Magnetic flux through the circular loop
The flux Φ linked with the inner coil (B) of radius rBis:
Φ=B⋅A=B⋅(πrB2)
Φ=μ0nI0πrB2sin(ωt)
Note: The sliding speed v does not induce motional EMF because the field is uniform deep inside the solenoid, meaning dxdB=0.
Step 3: Induced EMF in the loop
By Faraday's Law, the magnitude of the induced EMF (ε) is:
ε=dtdΦ=μ0nI0πrB2ωcos(ωt)
The peak EMF (ε0) is the amplitude of this expression:
ε0=μ0nI0πrB2ω
Step 4: Calculate Peak Current
The peak current i0 is the peak EMF divided by the resistance R:
i0=Rε0=Rμ0nI0πrB2ω
i0=10(4π×10−7)×500×10×π(10−2)2×1000
i0=104π×10−7×5000×π×10−4×1000
i0=1020π2×10−4
i0=2π2×10−5 A
To convert this to microamperes (μA), multiply by 106:
i0=20π2μA
\Step 5: RMS Current
The root-mean-square current is related to the peak current by irms=2i0:
irms=220π2μA
irms=2197μA
Q 4PhysicsSection A • MCQlaws of motion
+4 / -1
A body of mass 14 kg initially at rest explodes and breaks into three fragments of masses in the ratio 2 : 2 : 3. The two pieces of equal masses fly off perpendicular to each other with a speed of 18 m/s each. The velocity of the heavier fragment is ______m/s.
A
122
B
102
C
12
D
242
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to find the velocity of the heavier fragment after an explosion of a 14 kg body at rest. Since the body is initially at rest, the total initial momentum is zero and by conservation of linear momentum the vector sum of momenta of all fragments must also be zero: p1+p2+p3=0
The total mass of the body is 14 kg, and the ratio of the masses of the three fragments is 2 : 2 : 3, so the fragments have masses m1=72×14=4kg,m2=72×14=4kg, and m3=73×14=6kg.
The two equal pieces move perpendicular to each other at 18 m/s. Assigning piece 1 to the x-axis and piece 2 to the y-axis gives momenta p1=4×18x^=72x^kg m/s,p2=4×18y^=72y^kg m/s.
By momentum conservation the third fragment has momentum p3=−(p1+p2)=−72x^−72y^. The magnitude of this momentum is ∣p3∣=722+722=722kg m/s
The speed of the heavier fragment is then v3=m3∣p3∣=6722=122m/s
The correct answer is Option A: 122 m/s.
Q 5PhysicsSection A • MCQcurrent electricity
+4 / -1
To compare EMF of two cells using potentiometer the balancing lengths obtained are 200 cm and 150 cm. The least count of scale is 1 cm. The percentage error in the ratio of EMFs is______
A
1.55
B
1.75
C
1.65
D
1.17
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
For a potentiometer:
E₁ / E₂ = l₁ / l₂
Given:
l₁ = 200 cm
l₂ = 150 cm
least count = ±1 cm → absolute error in each length = 1 cm
step 1: relative error in ratio
E1/E2Δ(E1/E2)=l1Δl1+l2Δl2=2001+1501
step 2: calculate
2001=0.005
1501≈0.00667
sum:
0.005 + 0.00667 = 0.01167
step 3: percentage error
0.01167×100≈1.17%
Q 6PhysicsSection A • MCQmotion in a plane
+4 / -1
A bead P sliding on a frictionless semi-circular string (ACB) and it is at point S at t=0 and at this instant the horizontal component of its velocity is v. Another bead Q of the same mass as P is ejected from point A at t=0 along the horizontal string AB, with the speed v, friction between the beads and the respective strings may be neglected in both cases. Let tP and tQ be the respective times taken by beads P and Q to reach the point B, then the relation between tP and tQ is
A
tp>tQ
B
tp=tQ
C
tp>1.25tQ
D
tp<tQ
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
For bead Q: vQ=v
tQ=vAB=v2R
For bead P: vx=v at point S
Since string is frictionless, taking lowest point C as reference: E=K+U
As bead P moves below level AB, gravity performs positive work.
vP>vx throughout the motion below level AB
vPx>v for the major part of motion
Comparing average horizontal velocities: vPx,avg>vQ
tP=vPx,avgHorizontal displacement=vPx,avgAB
tP<tQ
Q 7PhysicsSection A • MCQmoving charges and magnetism
+4 / -1
The current passing through a conducting loop in the form of equilateral triangle of side 43 cm is 2A. The magnetic field at its centroid is α×10−5T. The value of α is______. (Given :μo=4π×10−7SI units)
A
33
B
23
C
23
D
3
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
B at centroid is sum of B from each straight wire (side of triangle) of triangle. As direction of B from all three wires is same.
Calculate B from a single side, 3B is the required answer
B = 4πrμ0I(sinθ1+sinθ2)
Substitute the values θ1=θ2=60, you obtain
B=3
Bnet=33
Q 8PhysicsSection A • MCQheat and thermodynamics
+4 / -1
The internal energy of a monoatomic gas is 3nRT. One mole of helium is kept in a cylinder having internal cross section area of 17 cm2 and fitted with a light movable frictionless piston. The gas is heated slowly by suppling 126 J heat. If the temperature rises by 4oC, then the piston will move ____ cm. (atmospheric pressure= 105 Pa)
A
14.5
B
1.45
C
1.55
D
15.5
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The first law of thermodynamics states Q=ΔU+W
where Q is the heat supplied, ΔU is the change in internal energy and W is the work done by the gas.
The question itself specifies that for a mono-atomic gas U=3nRT
Hence the change in internal energy is ΔU=3nRΔT
Given data:
• Number of moles, n=1
• Universal gas constant, R=8.314J mol−1K−1
• Rise in temperature, ΔT=4K
• Heat supplied, Q=126J
Calculate ΔU: ΔU=3×1×8.314×4=99.768J
Find the work done using the first law: W=Q−ΔU=126−99.768=26.232J
The cylinder is fitted with a light, frictionless piston, so the gas expands slowly against the constant atmospheric pressure P=105Pa
For a constant external pressure W=PΔV⟹ΔV=PW ΔV=10526.232=2.6232×10−4m3
The piston’s cross-sectional area is A=17cm2=17×10−4m2=1.7×10−3m2
Let the piston move up by a distance x. The change in volume is also ΔV=Ax
Therefore x=AΔV=1.7×10−32.6232×10−4=0.1543m
Converting to centimetres: x=0.1543m×100=15.43cm≈15.5cm
Hence the piston will move about 15.5 cm.
Option D is correct.
Q 9PhysicsSection A • MCQray optics
+4 / -1
A prism of angle 75o and refractive index 3 is coated with thin film of refractive index 1.5 only at the back exit surface. To have total internal reflection at the back exit surface the incident angle must be______. (sin15o = 0.25 and sin25o = 0.43)
A
15o
B
between 15o and 20o
C
<15o
D
<25o
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Step 1: Find the critical angle (C) for the back surface
The critical angle at the interface between the prism and the thin film is given by:
sinC=μprismμfilm
sinC=31.5=33/2=23
C=60∘
Step 2: Condition for Total Internal Reflection (TIR)
For TIR to occur at the back exit surface, the angle of incidence at that internal surface (r2) must be greater than or equal to the critical angle:
r2≥60∘
Step 3: Relate r2 to the first refraction angle (r1)
In a prism, the internal angles are related to the prism angle (A) by the formula r1+r2=A. Given A=75∘:
r1=75∘−r2
Substitute the inequality condition for r2:
r1≤75∘−60∘
r1≤15∘
Step 4: Find the condition for the initial incident angle (i)
Apply Snell's Law at the first interface (air to prism):
1⋅sini=μprism⋅sinr1
sini=3sinr1
Since r1≤15∘, and the sine function increases with angle in this range:
sini≤3sin15∘
Substitute the given value sin15∘=0.25:
sini≤3×0.25
sini≤1.732×0.25
sini≤0.433
Step 5: Conclusion
We are given that sin25∘=0.43.
Since our condition is sini≤0.433, the maximum possible value for the incident angle i is roughly 25.6∘.
Therefore, for Total Internal Reflection to occur, the incident angle must satisfy:
i≤25.6∘ printing error in actual jee main 2026 question
Q 10PhysicsSection A • MCQelectrostatics
+4 / -1
Two charges 7μC and −2μC are placed at (-9,0,0)cm and (9,0,0)cm respectively in an external field E=r2Ar, where A=9×105N/C.m2. Considering the potential at infinity is 0, the electrostatic energy of the configuration is ______J.
A
1.4
B
-90.7
C
49.3
D
24.3
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to find the total electrostatic energy of a system of two charges in an external electric field.
First, the total electrostatic energy of a system of charges in an external field has three contributions: Utotal=U1ext+U2ext+U12mutual where Uiext=qiVext(ri) is the energy of charge qi in the external potential, and U12mutual=r12kq1q2 is the mutual interaction energy.
Next, we find the external potential associated with the radial field E=r2Ar^ where A=9×105N/C⋅m2. By integrating from infinity to r, we obtain V(r)=−∫∞rE⋅dr=−∫∞rr′2Adr′=rA with the reference V(∞)=0.
Then we calculate the positions and distances of the charges. The first charge is q1=7μC=7×10−6C located at (−9,0,0) cm, so r1=9cm=0.09m. The second charge is q2=−2μC=−2×10−6C at (9,0,0) cm, giving r2=9cm=0.09m. The distance between the charges is r12=18cm=0.18m.
Substituting these into the expression for the potential, the external potential at each charge location is V(r1)=r1A=0.099×105=107V and similarly V(r2)=r2A=0.099×105=107V.
Consequently, the energy of each charge in the external field becomes U1ext=q1V(r1)=7×10−6×107=70J and U2ext=q2V(r2)=−2×10−6×107=−20J.
Meanwhile, the mutual interaction energy between the two charges is U12=r12kq1q2=0.189×109×7×10−6×(−2×10−6)=0.189×109×(−14×10−12)=0.18−126×10−3=−0.7J.
Finally, summing all contributions yields Utotal=70+(−20)+(−0.7)=49.3J.
The correct answer is Option (3): 49.3 J.
Q 11PhysicsSection A • MCQatoms and nuclei
+4 / -1
Which of the following pair of nuclei are isobars of the element?
A
80198Hg and 79197Au
B
13H and 23He
C
92236U and 92238U
D
12H and 13H
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to identify which pair of nuclei are isobars.
First, we recall that isobars are nuclides with the same mass number (A) but different atomic numbers (Z), meaning they have the same total number of nucleons (protons + neutrons) yet represent different elements.
Next, we examine each option in turn.
In the first case, 80198Hg and 79197Au have mass numbers 198 and 197, respectively, so they are different and thus not isobars.
Then, 13H (tritium) and 23He (helium-3) both possess mass number 3 but differ in atomic number, so they share the same mass number while representing different elements; these are isobars.
By contrast, 92236U and 92238U both have atomic number 92 but mass numbers 236 and 238, making them isotopes rather than isobars.
Similarly, 12H (deuterium) and 13H (tritium) share atomic number 1 yet differ in mass numbers 2 and 3, so they too are isotopes, not isobars.
The correct answer is Option (2): 13H and 23He.
Q 12PhysicsSection A • MCQmotion in a straight line
+4 / -1
A paratrooper jumps from an aeroplane and opens a parachute after 2 s of free fall and starts deaccelerating with 3m/s2. At 10 m height from ground, while descending with the help of parachute, the speed of paratrooper is 5 m/s. The initial height of the airplane is ___ m. (g=10m/s2)
A
62.5
B
92.5
C
20
D
82.5
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to find the initial height of the aeroplane given the paratrooper's motion in three phases.
First, during free fall for 2 seconds, we use v=u+gt with u=0, g=10m/s2, and t=2s which gives us v1=0+10×2=20m/s. The distance fallen is then s1=ut+21gt2=0+21×10×4=20m.
Next, after the parachute opens, the paratrooper decelerates at a=3m/s2, and since the initial velocity at this phase is v1=20m/s and the speed reduces to 5m/s at a height of 10 m above the ground, we apply v2=u2−2as2. Substituting the values gives 52=202−2×3×s2, so 25=400−6s2 and hence 6s2=375⟹s2=62.5m.
Finally, since the paratrooper is then 10 m above the ground, the total height of the aeroplane is H=s1+s2+10=20+62.5+10=92.5m.
The correct answer is Option (2): 92.5 m.
Q 13PhysicsSection A • MCQwave optics
+4 / -1
When an unpolarized light falls at a particular angle on a glass plate (placed in air), it is observed that the reflected beam is linearly polarized. The angle of refracted beam with respect to the normal is ______ .
(tan−1 (1.52) = 57.7o, refractive indices of air and glass are 1.00 and 1.52, respectively.)
A
32.3o
B
36.3o
C
39.6o
D
42.6o
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to find the angle of refraction when unpolarized light falls on a glass plate at Brewster's angle.
According to Brewster's law, when unpolarized light strikes a surface at Brewster's angle, the reflected light is completely linearly polarized and satisfies tanθB=μ1μ2, where θB is Brewster's angle, μ2 is the refractive index of the glass, and μ1 is the refractive index of air.
An important feature at Brewster's angle is that the reflected ray and the refracted ray are perpendicular, so θB+θr=90°, with θr denoting the angle of refraction.
First, we calculate Brewster's angle by evaluating θB=tan−1(1.001.52)=57.7°.
Next, using the perpendicularity relation gives θr=90°−θB=90°−57.7°=32.3°.
We can verify this result by applying Snell's law in the form μ1sinθB=μ2sinθr, which becomes 1.00×sin57.7°=1.52×sin32.3°. Numerically, 0.845≈1.52×0.534=0.812, the small difference arising from rounding.
The correct answer is Option (1): 32.3°.
Q 14PhysicsSection A • MCQheat and thermodynamics
+4 / -1
An air bubble of volume 2.9 cm3 rises from the bottom of a swimming pool of 5 m deep. At the bottom of the pool water temperature is 17oC. The volume of the bubble when it reaches the surface, where the water temperature is 27oC, is ______cm3. (g=10m/s2, density of water = 103kg/m3, and 1 atm pressure is 105 Pa)
A
3.0
B
2.0
C
4.5
D
4.2
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to find the volume of an air bubble when it reaches the surface of a swimming pool. First, the combined gas law for a fixed amount of gas is given by T1P1V1=T2P2V2.
At the bottom of the pool, the bubble has volume V1=2.9cm3, temperature T1=17°C=290K, and pressure P1=Patm+ρgh=105+103×10×5=105+0.5×105=1.5×105Pa.
When the bubble reaches the surface, the temperature becomes T2=27°C=300K and the pressure is P2=Patm=105Pa.
Substituting these values into the combined gas law gives V2=V1×P2P1×T1T2, then V2=2.9×1051.5×105×290300, which simplifies to V2=2.9×1.5×290300, and finally evaluates as V2=4.35×1.0345=4.5cm3.
The correct answer is Option (3): 4.5 cm3.
Q 15PhysicsSection A • MCQelectromagnetic induction
+4 / -1
A circular loop of radius 7 cm is placed in uniform magnetic field of 0.2 T directed perpendicular to plane of loop. The loop is converted into a square loop in 0.5 s. The EMF induced in the loop is ____ mV.
A
6.6
B
13.2
C
8.25
D
1.32
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to find the EMF induced when a circular loop is converted into a square loop in a magnetic field.
By Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction, the EMF is given by EMF=−dtdΦ=−BdtdA≈BΔt∣ΔA∣, where Φ=BA is the magnetic flux (since B is uniform and perpendicular to the loop), and ΔA is the change in area.
First, the area of the circular loop is calculated. With radius r=7cm=0.07m, we have Acircle=πr2=π×(0.07)2=π×0.0049=0.015394m2.
Next, when the wire is reshaped into a square, its perimeter remains equal to that of the original circle. Since the circumference is 2πr=2π×0.07=0.4398m, each side of the square measures 42πr=2πr=2π×0.07=0.10996m.
Accordingly, the area of the square becomes Asquare=(2πr)2=4π2r2=4π2×0.0049=40.04835=0.012088m2.
Therefore, the change in area is ∣ΔA∣=Acircle−Asquare=0.015394−0.012088=0.003306m2.
Finally, substituting this into Faraday’s law yields EMF=B×Δt∣ΔA∣=0.2×0.50.003306=0.2×0.006612=0.001322V, or equivalently EMF=1.32mV.
The correct answer is Option (4): 1.32 mV.
Q 16PhysicsSection A • MCQsemiconductor devices and logic gates
+4 / -1
For the given logic gate circuit, which of the following is the correct truth table?
A
B
C
D
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Z=n⋅(n+m)
Z=n⋅n+n⋅m
Z=n+n⋅m
Z=n(1+m)
Z=n
Hence, option (D) is correct.
Q 17PhysicsSection A • MCQlaws of motion
+4 / -1
A block is sliding down on an inclined plane of slope θ and at an instant t = 0 this block is given an upward momentum so that it starts moving up on the inclined surface with velocity u. The distance (S) travelled by the block before its velocity become zero, is ______. (g = gravitational acceleration)
A
2gcosθu2
B
gcosθ2u2
C
2gcosθu2
D
4gsinθu2
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The phrase sliding down in this context implies the block is initially sliding down with constant velocity. This means the downward component of gravity is perfectly balanced by the upward force of kinetic friction.
mgsinθ=fk
mgsinθ=μmgcosθ
When the block is given an upward momentum and starts moving up the incline with initial velocity u, the direction of motion changes. Now, kinetic friction acts down the incline, in the exact same direction as the gravity component.
The net opposing force is:
Fnet=mgsinθ+fk
Since we established earlier that fk=mgsinθ, the net force becomes:
Fnet=mgsinθ+mgsinθ=2mgsinθ
The deceleration a of the block is:
a=mFnet=2gsinθ
Now, use the third kinematic equation to find the distance S traveled before coming to rest, where final velocity is 0:
v2=u2−2aS
0=u2−2(2gsinθ)S
4gsinθ⋅S=u2
S=4gsinθu2
Q 18PhysicsSection A • MCQcapacitor
+4 / -1
A parallel plate capacitor with plate separation 5 mm is charged by a battery. On introducing a mica sheet of 2 mm and maintaining the connections of the plates with the terminals of the battery, it is found that it draws 25% more charge from the battery. The dielectric constant of mica is _______.
A
2.0
B
1.5
C
2.5
D
1.0
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let initial capacitance be:
C0=5ε0A
(since separation = 5 mm)
When mica of thickness 2 mm is inserted, remaining air gap = 3 mm
So capacitor becomes series combination:
C1=ε0A3+kε0A2
C=3+k2ε0A
Given: charge increases by 25%
Q′=1.25Q
Since battery connected ⇒ voltage constant ⇒
C′=1.25C0
step 1: equate
3+k2ε0A=1.25⋅5ε0A
Cancel ε0A:
3+k21=51.25=41
step 2: solve
3+k2=4
k2=1⇒k=2
Q 19PhysicsSection A • MCQelectromagnetic waves
+4 / -1
The ratio of speeds of electromagnetic waves in vacuum and a medium, having dielectric constant k=3 and permeability of μ=2μ0, is (μ0 = permeability of vacuum)
A
3:2
B
6:1
C
6:1
D
36:1
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to determine the ratio of the speed of electromagnetic waves in vacuum to that in a medium whose dielectric constant is K=3 and permeability is μ=2μ0.
First, recall that the speed of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is given by v=μϵ1, while in vacuum it is c=μ0ϵ01. When the medium has relative permeability μr and dielectric constant K, we have μ=μrμ0 and ϵ=Kϵ0.
Next, forming the ratio of these speeds yields vc=μ0ϵ0μϵ=μ0ϵ0μϵ=μrK. Since μ=2μ0, the relative permeability is μr=2.
Substituting the given values gives vc=2×3=6, so that the speeds are in the ratio c:v=6:1.
The correct answer is Option (2): 6:1.
Q 20PhysicsSection A • MCQelectrostatics
+4 / -1
Two shorts dipoles (A,B), A having charges ±2μC and length 1 cm and B having charges ±4μC and length 1 cm are placed with their centres 80 cm apart as shown in the figure. The electric field at a point P , equi-distant from the centres of both dipoles is ____ N/ C.
A
1692×105
B
1692×104
C
92×104
D
4.52×104
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Distance from each dipole center to P:
r=40 cm=0.4m
Dipole moments:
pA=(2×10−6)(10−2)=2×10−8
pB=(4×10−6)(10−2)=4×10−8
For dipole A (axial point),
EA=4πϵ01r32pA
=9×109⋅(0.4)32(2×10−8)
=5625
For dipole B (equatorial point),
EB=4πϵ01r3pB
=9×109⋅(0.4)34×10−8
=5625
So magnitudes are equal.
Directions:
EA is horizontal
EB is vertical
They are perpendicular.
Hence resultant:
E=EA2+EB2
=56252
=169×1042
Q 21PhysicsSection B • Numericalray optics
+4 / -1
The size of the images of an object, formed by a thin lens are equal when the object is placed at two different positions 8 cm and 24 cm from the lens. The focal length of the lens is _______ cm.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integer
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
For a thin lens we use the Cartesian sign convention: distances measured to the left of the lens are negative, those to the right are positive.
• Object positions: u1=−8 cm and u2=−24 cm (both on the left of the lens).
• Corresponding image distances are v1 and v2 (to be found).
• Lens formula: f1=v1−u1.
The images are stated to be of equal size, so their magnifications have equal magnitudes.
Magnification m=uv, hence u1v1=u2v2.
Because one image is erect (virtual) and the other inverted (real), the two magnifications have opposite signs.
Therefore u1v1=−u2v2.
Substituting u1=−8 and u2=−24 gives −8v1=−−24v2⟹v2=−3v1−(1).
Apply the lens formula to each object position.
For u1=−8 cm: f1=v11−u11=v11−−81=v11+81−(2).
For u2=−24 cm: f1=v21−u21=v21−−241=v21+241−(3).
Equate the right-hand sides of (2) and (3) and substitute v2=−3v1 from (1):
v11+81=−3v11+241
Re-arrange: v11+3v11=241−81 3v14=−121 v1=−16 cm.
Insert v1=−16 cm in (2) to obtain the focal length:
f1=−161+81=−161+162=161 ∴f=16 cm.
The positive sign of f shows the lens is converging (convex).
Hence the focal length of the lens is 16 cm.
Q 22PhysicsSection B • Numericalwaves
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The velocity of sound in air is doubled when the temperature is raised from OoC to αo C. The value of α is _______.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integer
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
Since the velocity of sound in an ideal gas is proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature, we have
v∝T
which implies v1v2=T1T2.
Substituting v2=2v1 and T1=0°C=273K into this relation gives
v12v1=273T2
so
2=273T2.
Squaring both sides yields
4=273T2
and hence
T2=4×273=1092K.
Converting to Celsius gives
α=T2−273=1092−273=819°C.
Therefore the required temperature is 819°C, so the answer is Option X.
Q 23PhysicsSection B • Numericalunits and measurements
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A ball of radius r and density ρ dropped through a viscous liquid of density σ and viscosity η attains its terminal velocity at time t, given by t=Aρarbηcσd, where A is a constant and a, b, c and d are integers. The value of a+db+c is _________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integer
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to find a+db+c where the terminal velocity time t=Aρarbηcσd. Since we use dimensional analysis, we note the dimensions of each quantity: [t]=T, [ρ]=ML−3 (density of the ball), [r]=L (radius), [η]=ML−1T−1 (viscosity), and [σ]=ML−3 (density of the liquid).
Writing the dimensional equation gives T=(ML−3)a⋅Lb⋅(ML−1T−1)c⋅(ML−3)d which simplifies to T=Ma+c+d⋅L−3a+b−c−3d⋅T−c.
Equating the exponents of M, L, and T on both sides leads to the system a+c+d=0 ...(i), −3a+b−c−3d=0 ...(ii), and −c=1⟹c=−1 ...(iii).
Substituting c=−1 into equation (i) gives a−1+d=0⟹a+d=1 ...(iv).
Substituting c=−1 into equation (ii) yields −3a+b−(−1)−3d=0⟹−3a+b+1−3d=0 so that b=3a+3d−1=3(a+d)−1=3(1)−1=2 ...(v).
This gives the required ratio as a+db+c=12+(−1)=11=1.
Option 1
Q 24PhysicsSection B • Numericalatoms and nuclei
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The average energy released per fission for the nucleus of 92235U is 190 MeV. When all the atoms of 47g pure 92235U undergo fission process, the energy released is α×1023MeV. The value of α is ______. (Avogadro Number = 6 ×1023 per mole)
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integer
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
Moles of U-235 = 47/235 = 0.2. Atoms = 0.2 × 6×10²³ = 1.2×10²³. Energy = 1.2×10²³ × 190 = 228×10²³ MeV. So α = 228.
Q 25PhysicsSection B • Numericalrotational motion
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Suppose there is a uniform circular disc of mass M kg and radius r m shown in figure. The shaded regions are cut out from the disc. The moment of inertia of the remainder about the axis A of the disc is given by 256xMr2. The value of x is______.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integer
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
Mass of removed parts (m):
For a hole with radius r/4: m=πr2π(r/4)2×M=161M
Moment of Inertia of the Original Disc (Idisc):
Idisc=21Mr2=256128Mr2
Moment of Inertia of One Removed Part (Ihole):
Ihole=Icm_hole+md2
Ihole=[21m(4r)2]+m(43r)2
Ihole=[21⋅16M⋅16r2]+[16M⋅169r2]
Ihole=512Mr2+51218Mr2=51219Mr2
Final Moment of Inertia:
Iremainder=Idisc−2⋅Ihole
Iremainder=256128Mr2−2(51219Mr2)
Iremainder=256128Mr2−25619Mr2=256109Mr2
x=109
Q 26ChemistrySection A • MCQchemical kinetics
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Given above is the concentration vs time plot for a dissociation reaction : A→nB . Based on the data of the initial phase of the reaction (initial 10 min), the value of n is________.
A
5
B
2
C
4
D
3
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let the stoichiometry of the dissociation be A→nB.
For any reaction written as aA→bB, the rate at any instant is defined so that the expressions for all species are equal in magnitude: rate=−a1dtd[A]=b1dtd[B]
In our case a=1 and b=n, giving −dtd[A]=n1dtd[B]−(1)
The concentration-time plot supplied in the question shows the behaviour during the first 10 min:
• [A] falls from 1.00 M to 0.90 M (a decrease of 0.10 M).
• [B] rises from 0 to 0.30 M (an increase of 0.30 M).
Using the magnitudes of the initial slopes, equation (1) becomes 0.10=n1(0.30)
Solving for n, n=0.100.30=3
Hence, the dissociation reaction produces three moles of B for every mole of A that disappears.
Option D which is: 3
Q 27ChemistrySection A • MCQp block elements
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It is noticed that Pb2+ is more stable than Pb4+ but Sn2+ is less stable than Sn4+ Observe the following reactions.
PbO2+Pb→2PbO;△rGo(1) SnO2+Sn→2SnO;△rGo(2)
Identify the correct set from the following
A
△rGo(1)>0;△rGo(2)<0
B
△rGo(1)<0;△rGo(2)>0
C
△rGo(1)>0;△rGo(2)>0
D
△rGo(1)<0;△rGo(2)<0
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
For any reaction under standard conditions, the criterion for spontaneity is given by the sign of the standard Gibbs free energy change:
ΔrGo<0(reaction is spontaneous) ΔrGo>0(reaction is non-spontaneous)
Case 1: Reaction PbO2+Pb⟶2PbO
Oxidation states involved are Pb(+4) in PbO2, Pb(0), and Pb(+2) in PbO. It is given that Pb2+ is more stable than both Pb4+ and Pb0. Therefore the reaction that converts Pb(+4) and Pb(0) into the more stable Pb(+2) will proceed spontaneously.
Hence for reaction (1): ΔrGo(1)<0.
Case 2: Reaction SnO2+Sn⟶2SnO
Oxidation states involved are Sn(+4) in SnO2, Sn(0), and Sn(+2) in SnO. It is given that Sn4+ is more stable than both Sn2+ and Sn0. Thus the reverse reaction
2SnO⟶SnO2+Sn
is spontaneous, implying the forward reaction is non-spontaneous.
Therefore for reaction (2): ΔrGo(2)>0.
Thus the correct signs are ΔrGo(1)<0 and ΔrGo(2)>0. This corresponds to Option B.
Q 28ChemistrySection A • MCQp block elements
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Elements X and Y belong to Group 15 . The difference between the electronegativity values of 'X' and phosphorus is higher than that of the difference between phosphorus and 'Y'. 'X' & 'Y' are respectively
A
Bi & N
B
N & As
C
As & Sb
D
As & Bi
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to identify elements X and Y from Group 15, where the difference in electronegativity between X and P is greater than the difference between P and Y.
In Group 15, electronegativity generally decreases down the group: N > P > As > Sb > Bi. The Pauling electronegativity values are approximately: N(3.04), P(2.19), As(2.18), Sb(2.05), Bi(2.02).
For the condition to hold, ∣ENX−ENP∣>∣ENP−ENY∣, we need X to be farther from P in electronegativity than Y.
Check Option (2): X = N, Y = As.
∣ENN−ENP∣=∣3.04−2.19∣=0.85
∣ENP−ENAs∣=∣2.19−2.18∣=0.01
0.85>0.01 ✓
This satisfies the given condition. N is much more electronegative than P (large difference), while As has nearly the same electronegativity as P (small difference).
The correct answer is Option (2): N and As.
Q 29ChemistrySection A • MCQperiodic classification of elements
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Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The second ionisation enthalpy of Na is larger than the corresponding ionisation enthalpy of Mg.
Statement II: The ionic radius of O2− is larger than that of F−.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
B
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
C
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
D
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to evaluate two statements about ionization enthalpy and ionic radius.
Statement I: The second ionisation enthalpy of Na is larger than the corresponding ionisation enthalpy of Mg.
The second ionization involves removing an electron from:
- Na+: configuration [Ne] (1s22s22p6) -- removing an electron from the stable noble gas core requires enormous energy (IE2 of Na ≈ 4562 kJ/mol).
- Mg+: configuration [Ne]3s1 -- removing the lone 3s electron is much easier (IE2 of Mg ≈ 1451 kJ/mol).
Since removing a core electron from Na+ requires far more energy than removing a valence electron from Mg+, Statement I is TRUE.
Statement II: The ionic radius of O2− is larger than that of F−.
Both O2− and F− are isoelectronic with 10 electrons each. For isoelectronic species, the ion with fewer protons (lower nuclear charge) has a larger radius because the electrons are less tightly held.
- O2−: 8 protons, 10 electrons
- F−: 9 protons, 10 electrons
Since oxygen has fewer protons, O2− has a larger ionic radius (O2−≈1.40 angstroms vs F−≈1.33 angstroms). Statement II is TRUE.
The correct answer is Option 3: Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q 30ChemistrySection A • MCQbiomolecules
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Both human DNA and RNA are chiral molecules. The chirality in DNA and RNA arises due to the presence of
A
L- sugar component
B
Chiral phosphate unit
C
D-sugar component
D
Base unit
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to identify what causes chirality in DNA and RNA molecules.
Key Concept: Chirality in Nucleic Acids
Both DNA and RNA are chiral molecules. The chirality in nucleic acids arises from their sugar components:
- DNA contains 2-deoxyribose (a D-sugar)
- RNA contains ribose (a D-sugar)
These sugars have multiple chiral centers (asymmetric carbon atoms). In biological systems, nucleic acids exclusively use the D-configuration of these sugars. The D-sugar has specific spatial arrangements at each chiral carbon, making the entire nucleic acid molecule chiral.
Why not the other options?
- L-sugar component (Option 1): Biological nucleic acids use D-sugars, not L-sugars. L-nucleic acids do not occur naturally.
- Chiral phosphate unit (Option 2): The phosphate group itself (PO43−) is achiral (tetrahedral with identical oxygen atoms). While the phosphodiester linkage can create a chiral center at phosphorus in some cases, the primary source of chirality is the sugar.
- Base unit (Option 4): The nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C, U) are planar aromatic molecules that are achiral by themselves.
The correct answer is Option 3: D-sugar component.
Q 31ChemistrySection A • MCQalcohols phenols and ethers
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A mixed ether (P), when heated with excess of hot concentrated hydrogen iodide produces two different alkyl iodides which when treated with aq. NaOH give compounds (Q) and (R). Both (Q) and (R) give yellow precipitate with NaOI. Identify the mixed ether (P):
A
B
C
D
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
When an ether is treated with excess hot conc. HI, both the C−O bonds finally cleave to give the two corresponding alkyl iodides:
R−O−R′+2HIhotconc.R−I+R′−I+H2O
The two alkyl iodides formed here are then converted into the corresponding alcohols on treatment with aqueous NaOH:
R−I+NaOH(aq)⟶R−OH
According to the statement, both alcohols Q and R give a yellow precipitate with NaOI (iodoform test).
The iodoform test is given only by:
• Ethanol, CH3CH2OH (via the CH3CHO group on oxidation)
• Any 2° alcohol of the type CH3CH(OH)R (because oxidation gives a methyl ketone).
Hence each of the two alcohols produced must possess the CH3−C(OH) group.
The simplest pair satisfying this condition is:
Q:CH3CH2OH(ethanol) R:(CH3)2CHOH(2-propanol)
Their corresponding iodides (obtained from ether cleavage) must therefore be:
CH3CH2Iand(CH3)2CHI
An ether that yields exactly these two iodides on cleavage is the mixed ether formed by joining the two alkyl groups through oxygen:
CH3CH2−O−CH(CH3)2
This is ethyl isopropyl ether.
Among the given choices, Option A represents CH3CH2OCH(CH3)2, i.e. ethyl isopropyl ether.
Therefore, the mixed ether P is Option A which is: CH3CH2OCH(CH3)2.
Q 32ChemistrySection A • MCQcoordination compounds
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Identify the CORRECT set of details from the following:
A. [Co(NH3)6]3+ : Inner orbital compex; d2sp3 hybridized
B. [MnCl6]3− : Outer orbital complex; sp3d2 hybridized
C. [CoF6]3− : Outer orbital complex; d2sp3 hybridized
D. [FeF6]3− : Outer orbital complex; sp3d2 hybridized
E. [Ni(CN)4]2− : Inner orbital complex; sp3d2 hybridized
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A, B, C, D & E
B
C & D Only
C
A, C & E Only
D
A, B & D Only
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to identify which statements about coordination compounds are correct.
Statement A: [Co(NH3)6]3+ — Inner orbital complex, d2sp3 hybridized.
Co in [Co(NH3)6]3+: Co is Co3+ with configuration 3d6. NH3 is a strong field ligand, causing electron pairing. All 6 electrons pair up in three 3d orbitals, leaving two 3d orbitals empty. Hybridization: d2sp3 (using two inner 3d, one 4s, and three 4p orbitals). This is an inner orbital complex. Correct.
Statement B: [MnCl6]3− — Outer orbital complex, sp3d2 hybridized.
Mn in [MnCl6]3−: Mn is Mn3+ with configuration 3d4. Cl− is a weak field ligand, so no pairing occurs. With 4 unpaired electrons in the 3d orbitals, inner d orbitals are not available. Hybridization: sp3d2 (using 4s, 4p, and two 4d outer orbitals). This is an outer orbital complex. Correct.
Statement C: [CoF6]3− — Outer orbital complex, d2sp3 hybridized.
Co in [CoF6]3−: Co3+ with 3d6. F− is a weak field ligand, so electrons remain unpaired (4 unpaired electrons). Since inner d-orbitals are occupied, hybridization should be sp3d2 (outer orbital), not d2sp3. Incorrect — the hybridization is wrong.
Statement D: [FeF6]3− — Outer orbital complex, sp3d2 hybridized.
Fe in [FeF6]3−: Fe3+ with 3d5. F− is a weak field ligand — all five 3d electrons remain unpaired. No inner d orbitals available. Hybridization: sp3d2 (outer orbital). Correct.
Statement E: [Ni(CN)4]2− — Inner orbital complex, sp3d2 hybridized.
Ni in [Ni(CN)4]2−: Ni2+ with 3d8. CN− is a strong field ligand causing pairing: all 8 electrons pair in four 3d orbitals, leaving one 3d orbital empty. For 4 ligands, hybridization is dsp2 (square planar), not sp3d2. Also sp3d2 implies 6 coordination, but there are only 4 ligands. Incorrect.
Conclusion: Statements A, B, and D are correct.
Hence the correct answer is Option 4: A, B & D Only.
Q 33ChemistrySection A • MCQcompounds containing nitrogen
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A student has been given a compound "x" of molecular formula- C6H7N. 'x' is sparingly soluble in water. However, on addition of dilute mineral acid, 'x' becomes soluble in water. 'x' when treated with CHCl3 and KOH(alc), 'Y' is produced. 'y' has a specific unpleasant smell. On treatment with benzenesulphonyl chloride, 'x' gives a compound 'z' which is soluble in alkali. The number of different "H" atoms present in 'z' is :-
A
8
B
5
C
4
D
7
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Q 34ChemistrySection A • MCQaldehydes ketones and carboxylic acids
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Iodoform test can differentiate between
A. Methanol and Ethanol B. CH3COOH and CH3CH2COOH C. Cyclohexene and cyclohexanone D. Diethyl ether and Pentan-3-one E. Anisole and acetone
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
B, C & E Only
B
A & D Only
C
A & E Only
D
A, B & E Only
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The iodoform test is used to detect the presence of a methyl group attached to a carbonyl group (CH3CO−) or a secondary alcohol group (CH3CH(OH)−), as well as ethanol and acetaldehyde. We need to identify which pairs can be differentiated by this test.
Key Principle: The iodoform test is positive for compounds containing the CH3CO− group (or structures that can be oxidized to it). Specifically, it is positive for:
- Acetaldehyde (CH3CHO)
- Methyl ketones (CH3COR)
- Ethanol (CH3CH2OH, oxidized to CH3CHO)
- Secondary alcohols of the form CH3CH(OH)R
Pair A: Methanol and Ethanol
- Methanol (CH3OH): Does NOT give iodoform test (no CH3CO or CH3CHOH group)
- Ethanol (CH3CH2OH): Gives POSITIVE iodoform test (oxidized to acetaldehyde)
Can be differentiated.
Pair B: CH3COOH and CH3CH2COOH
- Both are carboxylic acids. Carboxylic acids do not give the iodoform test (the CH3CO− in acetic acid is CH3COOH, not a ketone or aldehyde). Both are negative.
Cannot be differentiated.
Pair C: Cyclohexene and Cyclohexanone
- Cyclohexene: No CH3CO group. Negative.
- Cyclohexanone: It is a cyclic ketone but does NOT have a CH3CO− group (the carbonyl is flanked by CH2 groups). Negative.
Cannot be differentiated.
Pair D: Diethyl ether and Pentan-3-one
- Diethyl ether (C2H5OC2H5): Negative.
- Pentan-3-one (CH3CH2COCH2CH3): No CH3CO group (the carbonyl is flanked by CH2 groups). Negative.
Cannot be differentiated.
Pair E: Anisole and Acetone
- Anisole (C6H5OCH3): Negative.
- Acetone (CH3COCH3): Has CH3CO group. Positive.
Can be differentiated.
The pairs that can be differentiated are A and E.
The correct answer is Option 3: A & E Only.
Q 35ChemistrySection A • MCQatomic structure
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The work functions of two metals (MA and MB ) are in the 1 : 2 ratio. When these metals are exposed to photons of energy 6 eV, the kinetic energy of liberated electrons of MA : MB is in the ratio of 2.642 : 1. The work functions (in eV) of MA and MA are respectively.
A
3.1, 6.2
B
1.4, 2.8
C
1.5, 3.0
D
2.3, 4.6
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The photoelectric effect equation states that the kinetic energy K of an emitted electron is given by K=hν−ϕ, where hν is the photon energy and ϕ is the work function of the metal.
Given that the work functions of metals MA and MB are in the ratio 1:2, let ϕA be the work function of MA and ϕB be the work function of MB. Therefore, ϕB=2ϕA.
The photon energy is 6 eV for both metals. Thus:
For MA: KA=6−ϕA
For MB: KB=6−ϕB=6−2ϕA
The ratio of kinetic energies is given as KA:KB=2.642:1, so:
KBKA=6−2ϕA6−ϕA=2.642
Solving for ϕA:
6−ϕA=2.642×(6−2ϕA)
6−ϕA=2.642×6−2.642×2ϕA
6−ϕA=15.852−5.284ϕA
Bringing like terms together:
−ϕA+5.284ϕA=15.852−6
4.284ϕA=9.852
ϕA=4.2849.852≈2.3 eV
Then, ϕB=2×ϕA=2×2.3=4.6 eV.
Verifying the kinetic energies:
KA=6−2.3=3.7 eV
KB=6−4.6=1.4 eV
Ratio: KBKA=1.43.7=2.642857...≈2.642
This matches the given ratio.
Thus, the work functions of MA and MB are 2.3 eV and 4.6 eV, respectively.
Comparing with the options:
A. 3.1, 6.2
B. 1.4, 2.8
C. 1.5, 3.0
D. 2.3, 4.6
The correct answer is option D.
Q 36ChemistrySection A • MCQatomic structure
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Identify the INCORRECT statements from the following:
A. Notation 1224Mg represents 24 protons and 12 neutrons. B. Wavelength of a radiation of frequency 4.5×1015s−1 is 6.7×10−8m. C. One radiation has wavelength =λ1(900nm) and energy= E1. Other radiation has wavelength = λ2(300nm) and energy= E2⋅E1:E2=3:1. D. Number of photons of light of wavelength 2000 pm that provides 1 J of energy is 1.006x1016.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A and B Only
B
A and C Only
C
B and C Only
D
A and D Only
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to identify the INCORRECT statements from the given options about atomic structure.
Notation 1224Mg represents 24 protons and 12 neutrons. This is INCORRECT. In the notation ZAX, Z (subscript) = atomic number = number of protons = 12, and A (superscript) = mass number = 24. Number of neutrons = A - Z = 24 - 12 = 12. So it represents 12 protons and 12 neutrons, not 24 protons and 12 neutrons. ✗
Wavelength of radiation of frequency 4.5×1015s−1 is 6.7×10−8 m. λ=c/ν=3×108/4.5×1015=6.67×10−8 m. This is CORRECT. ✓
λ1=900 nm, λ2=300 nm. E1:E2=3:1. Since E=hc/λ, we get E1/E2=λ2/λ1=300/900=1/3, so E1:E2=1:3, not 3:1. This is INCORRECT. ✗
Number of photons of wavelength 2000 pm providing 1 J of energy is 1.006×1016. Ephoton=hc/λ=6.63×10−34×3×108/(2000×10−12)=9.945×10−17 J. n=1/9.945×10−17=1.006×1016. This is CORRECT. ✓
Incorrect statements are A and C.
The correct answer is Option (2): A and C Only.
Q 37ChemistrySection A • MCQbasics of organic chemistry
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Given below are two statements:
Statement I: (CH3)3C+ is more stable than CH3+ as nine hyperconjugation interactions are possible in (CH3)3C+. Statement II: CH3+ is less stable than (CH3)3C+ as only three hyperconjugation interactions are possible in CH3+.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
B
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
C
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Hyperconjugation is a stabilizing effect in carbocations where electrons from the C-H bond adjacent to the carbocation carbon (alpha hydrogens) are donated into the empty p-orbital of the carbocation. The number of hyperconjugation interactions depends on the number of alpha hydrogens.
Consider the methyl carbocation, CH3+. The carbocation carbon has no alkyl groups attached, so there are no alpha carbons and hence no alpha hydrogens. Therefore, the number of hyperconjugation interactions in CH3+ is zero.
Now, consider the tert-butyl carbocation, (CH3)3C+. The carbocation carbon is attached to three methyl groups. Each methyl group has three hydrogens, so the total number of alpha hydrogens is 3 × 3 = 9. Therefore, nine hyperconjugation interactions are possible.
Statement I claims that (CH3)3C+ is more stable than CH3+ because it has nine hyperconjugation interactions. This is correct because more hyperconjugation interactions lead to greater stability. Thus, Statement I is true.
Statement II claims that CH3+ is less stable than (CH3)3C+ because it has only three hyperconjugation interactions. However, as established, CH3+ has zero hyperconjugation interactions, not three. Therefore, Statement II is false.
In summary, Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
The correct option is C: Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Q 38ChemistrySection A • MCQhaloalkanes and haloarenes
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A
B
C
D
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Step 1: Debromination with (Zn, Δ)The reaction of a vicinal dibromide (1,2-dibromo compound) with zinc dust and heat undergoes an elimination reaction. The zinc removes the two bromine atoms to form a carbon-carbon double bond.
Intermediate: 3,5-dimethylcyclopent-1-ene.
Step 2: Hydrobromination with (HBr)The intermediate alkene then reacts with (HBr). This is an electrophilic addition reaction following Markovnikov's rule.
Protonation: The double bond attacks the (H+) from (HBr), forming the most stable carbocation.
Carbocation Formation: In this symmetrical-looking substituted cyclopentene, the carbocation forms at one of the substituted positions to benefit from secondary/tertiary stability (though here they are equivalent).
Nucleophilic Attack: The bromide ion ((Br−)) attacks the carbocation.
Q 39ChemistrySection A • MCQelectrochemistry
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Consider the above electrochemical cell where a metal electrode (M) is undergoing redox reaction by forming M+(M→M++e−). The cation M+ is present in two different concentrations c1 and c2 as shown above. which of the following statement is correct for generating a positive cell potential?
A
If c1 is present at anode, then c1=c2.
B
If c1 is present at cathode, then c1>c2.
C
If c1 is present at cathode, then c1<c2.
D
If c1 is present at anode then c1>c2.
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The given cell is a metal/metal-ion concentration cell: the same metal M(s) is present at both electrodes, but the molar concentration of the cation M+ differs.
Using the Nernst equation for a concentration cell with n=1 transferred electron, the cell potential is
Ecell=10.0591log(canodeccathode)
For the cell potential to be positive we must have
log(canodeccathode)>0⟹ccathode>canode
Now compare the four statements provided:
Case 1: Option A — “If c1 is present at anode, then c1=c2.”
If the two concentrations are equal, ccathode=canode, so Ecell=0, not positive. Hence wrong.
Case 2: Option B — “If c1 is present at cathode, then c1>c2.”
Here ccathode=c1 and canode=c2. The requirement for a positive potential is exactly c1>c2, so this statement is correct.
Case 3: Option C — “If c1 is present at cathode, then c1<c2.”
This yields ccathode<canode, giving a negative Ecell, so it is incorrect.
Case 4: Option D — “If c1 is present at anode, then c1>c2.”
That would imply canode>ccathode, again producing a negative cell potential; therefore wrong.
Hence, the only correct statement that guarantees a positive cell potential is:
Option B which is: If c1 is present at cathode, then c1>c2.
Q 40ChemistrySection A • MCQcompounds containing nitrogen
+4 / -1
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
B
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
C
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
D
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to evaluate the correctness of two organic reaction sequences presented in Statement I and Statement II.
Statement I:
The first sequence outlines the conversion of tetralin (a bicyclic hydrocarbon where a benzene ring is fused to a 6-membered aliphatic ring) into 1,2-diaminobenzene:
Step (i) KMnO4/H+ (Oxidation): Vigorous oxidation cleaves the aliphatic ring at the benzylic positions, converting both benzylic carbons into carboxylic acid groups. This yields phthalic acid (benzene-1,2-dicarboxylic acid).
Step (ii) NH3 (Ammonolysis & Heating): Reaction of phthalic acid with ammonia followed by heating forms phthalamide, which undergoes cyclization to give phthalimide.
Step (iii) Br2+KOH (Hoffmann Bromamide Degradation): Phthalimide undergoes Hoffmann degradation, converting the carbonyl-linked nitrogen groups into primary amines, yielding 1,2-diaminobenzene.
⟹Statement I is True
Statement II:
The second sequence outlines the synthesis of 3,5-dibromotoluene starting from 4-methylaniline (p-toluidine):
Step (i) Br2/H2O (Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution): The strongly activating and ortho/para-directing −NH2 group directs bromine atoms to both of its vacant ortho positions (positions 2 and 6), producing 2,6-dibromo-4-methylaniline.
Step (ii) NaNO2+HCl, 0−5∘C (Diazotization): The primary aromatic amine group (−NH2) is converted quantitatively into a diazonium salt group (−N2+Cl−).
Step (iii) \text{aq. } H3PO2 (Deamination): Hypophosphorous acid reduces the diazonium group, replacing it with a hydrogen atom (−H), which results in the formation of 3,5-dibromotoluene.
⟹Statement II is True
Conclusion:
Both reaction sequences proceed successfully as described to form their respective major products.
Answer: Option C — Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Q 41ChemistrySection A • MCQbasics of organic chemistry
+4 / -1
In Carius method 0.2425 g of an organic compound gave 0.5253 g silver chloride. The percentage of chlorine in the organic compound is
A
37.57%
B
53.58%
C
87.65%
D
34.79%
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The Carius method involves converting the chlorine in an organic compound to silver chloride (AgCl). The mass of chlorine in the AgCl precipitate comes from the organic compound.
Given:
- Mass of organic compound = 0.2425 g
- Mass of AgCl obtained = 0.5253 g
The molar mass of AgCl is calculated using atomic masses: Ag = 108 g/mol, Cl = 35.5 g/mol. Thus, molar mass of AgCl = 108 + 35.5 = 143.5 g/mol.
In 143.5 g of AgCl, the mass of chlorine is 35.5 g. Therefore, the mass of chlorine in 0.5253 g of AgCl is found using proportion:
Mass of chlorine = (143.535.5)×0.5253
First, compute the ratio:
143.535.5=1435355=28771≈0.2473867595818815
Then, multiply by the mass of AgCl:
0.2473867595818815×0.5253=0.1299522648083624 g
This mass of chlorine comes from 0.2425 g of the organic compound. The percentage of chlorine is:
Percentage of chlorine = (mass of compoundmass of chlorine)×100=(0.24250.1299522648083624)×100
Compute the division:
0.24250.1299522648083624=0.5358762886597938
Multiply by 100:
0.5358762886597938×100=53.58762886597938%
Rounding to two decimal places gives 53.59%. However, comparing with the options, 53.58% is the closest match.
The options are:
- A. 37.57%
- B. 53.58%
- C. 87.65%
- D. 34.79%
Thus, the correct answer is option B, 53.58%.
Q 42ChemistrySection A • MCQp block elements
+4 / -1
Which statements are NOT TRUE about XeO2F2?
A. It has a see-saw shape. B. Xe has 5 electron pairs in its valence shell in XeO2F2. C. The O−Xe−O bond angle is close to 180o. D. The F−Xe−F bond angle is close to 180o. E. Xe has 16 valence electrons in XeO2F2.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
B, C and E Only
B
B and D Only
C
Aand D Only
D
B, D and E Only
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To determine which statements are not true about XeO2F2, we analyze its molecular structure using VSEPR theory and Lewis structure concepts.
First, recall that xenon (Xe) has 8 valence electrons. In XeO2F2, the central Xe atom is bonded to two oxygen (O) atoms and two fluorine (F) atoms. The Lewis structure shows:
Two Xe-F single bonds (each bond is a single pair of electrons).
Two Xe-O double bonds (each double bond consists of two pairs of electrons).
One lone pair on Xe (since Xe contributes 6 electrons to bonding and has 2 electrons left).
Total valence electrons in XeO2F2: Xe contributes 8, each O contributes 6 (total 12 for two O), each F contributes 7 (total 14 for two F), summing to 8+12+14=34 electrons. After accounting for bonding and lone pairs on terminal atoms, Xe has one lone pair.
Now, evaluate each statement:
Statement A: It has a see-saw shape.
Using VSEPR theory, the steric number (SN) is the number of electron domains around Xe. Each bond (single or double) counts as one domain, and the lone pair counts as one domain. Thus, SN = 4 bonding domains (two from Xe-F and two from Xe-O) + 1 lone pair domain = 5. The electron geometry is trigonal bipyramidal. With one lone pair in an equatorial position, the molecular shape is see-saw. Thus, this statement is TRUE.
Statement B: Xe has 5 electron pairs in its valence shell in XeO2F2.
"Electron pairs" refer to both bonding pairs and lone pairs. In the Lewis structure:
- Lone pair on Xe: 1 pair.
- Bonding pairs: Two Xe-F single bonds contribute 2 bonding pairs, and two Xe-O double bonds contribute 4 bonding pairs (since each double bond has two pairs). Total = 1+2+4=7 electron pairs. The statement says 5, which is incorrect. Thus, this statement is NOT TRUE.
Statement C: The O−Xe−O bond angle is close to 180∘.
In the see-saw shape (trigonal bipyramidal with one lone pair), the lone pair occupies an equatorial position. The two O atoms are typically in equatorial positions (due to bond length and electronegativity considerations). The ideal equatorial bond angle is 120∘, but the lone pair repulsion reduces it to less than 120∘. It is not close to 180∘. Thus, this statement is NOT TRUE.
Statement D: The F−Xe−F bond angle is close to 180∘.
In the trigonal bipyramidal arrangement, the two F atoms are in axial positions. The axial bond angle is 180∘. Thus, this statement is TRUE.
Statement E: Xe has 16 valence electrons in XeO2F2.
The number of valence electrons assigned to Xe in the Lewis structure is calculated as:
- Lone pair electrons: 2 electrons.
- Half the bonding electrons: Each Xe-F bond (2 electrons) contributes 1 electron to Xe, so two bonds give 2 electrons. Each Xe-O double bond (4 electrons) contributes 2 electrons to Xe, so two double bonds give 4 electrons. Total = 2+2+4=8 valence electrons. The statement says 16, which is incorrect. Thus, this statement is NOT TRUE.
The NOT TRUE statements are B, C, and E. The correct option is A. B, C and E Only.
Q 43ChemistrySection A • MCQchemical kinetics
+4 / -1
Observe the following reactions at T(K).
I. A→products II. 5Br−(aq)+BrO3−(aq)→3Br2(aq)+3H2O(l)
Both the reactions are started at 10.00 am. The rates of these reactions at 10.10 am are same. The value of −△t△[Br−] at 10.10am. is 2×10−4molL−1min−1. The concentration of A at 10.10am is 10−1molL−1. What is the first order rate constant (in min−1) of reaction I?
A
10−3
B
2×10−3
C
10−2
D
4×10−3
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
At 10:10 am, the rates of reactions I and II are equal.
At 10:10 am, −ΔtΔ[Br−]=2×10−4 mol L−1 min−1 and [A]=10−1 mol L−1.
We first note that the rate of disappearance of A in reaction I equals the rate of disappearance of Br− in reaction II:
−dtd[A]=−dtd[Br−]=2×10−4 mol L−1min−1
To find the rate constant k, we apply the first-order rate law:
For a first-order reaction: −dtd[A]=k[A]
k×10−1=2×10−4
k=10−12×10−4=2×10−3 min−1
The correct answer is Option B: 2×10−3 min−1.
Q 44ChemistrySection A • MCQaldehydes ketones and carboxylic acids
+4 / -1
Which of the following statements are TRUE about Haloform reaction?:
A. Sodium hypochlorite reacts with KI to give KOI. B. KOI is a reducing agent.
C. α,β-unsaturated methylketone CH3−CH=CH−C(=O)−CH3 will give iodoform reaction. D. Isopropyl alcohol will not give iodoform test. E. Methanoic acid will give positive iodoform test.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A, B & C Only
B
A, C & E Only
C
B, D & E Only
D
A & C Only
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The haloform reaction involves compounds with a methyl ketone group (R-CO-CH3) or compounds that can be oxidized to methyl ketones (like secondary alcohols with the structure R-CH(OH)-CH3), reacting with halogen (I2, Br2, Cl2) in the presence of base to form a haloform (CHX3) and a carboxylate ion.
Evaluating each statement:
Statement A: "Sodium hypochlorite reacts with KI to give KOI."
Sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl) reacts with potassium iodide (KI) in the reaction: NaOCl+KI→NaCl+KOI where KOI is potassium hypoiodite. This reaction occurs because hypochlorite oxidizes iodide to hypoiodite. Thus, statement A is true.
Statement B: "KOI is a reducing agent."
Potassium hypoiodite (KOI) contains the hypoiodite ion (OI-), which acts as an oxidizing agent in reactions like the haloform reaction. It oxidizes methyl ketones to carboxylates and is not a reducing agent. Thus, statement B is false.
Statement C: "α,β-unsaturated methylketone CH3−CH=CH−C(=O)−CH3 will give iodoform reaction."
The compound CH3−CH=CH−C(=O)−CH3 is a methyl ketone because it has the -CO-CH3 group. The α,β-unsaturation does not prevent enolization of the methyl group, so it undergoes the haloform reaction. Thus, statement C is true.
Statement D: "Isopropyl alcohol will not give iodoform test."
Isopropyl alcohol (CH3)2CHOH is a secondary alcohol that can be oxidized to acetone (CH3)2C=O, a methyl ketone, which gives a positive iodoform test. Therefore, isopropyl alcohol gives a positive test, and statement D is false.
Statement E: "Methanoic acid will give positive iodoform test."
Methanoic acid (HCOOH) lacks a methyl group or a group oxidizable to a methyl ketone. It does not undergo the haloform reaction and gives a negative test. Thus, statement E is false.
True statements are A and C only. The correct option is D.
Q 45ChemistrySection A • MCQd and f block elements
+4 / -1
The oxidation state of chromium in the final product formed in the reaction between KI and acidified K2Cr2O7 solution is:
A
+2
B
+4
C
+3
D
+6
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The reaction between KI and acidified K2Cr2O7 yields a chromium-containing product whose oxidation state must be determined.
In acidic medium, K2Cr2O7 acts as a strong oxidizing agent, oxidizing I− to I2, while Cr2O72− (with Cr in the +6 oxidation state) undergoes reduction.
The balanced redox equation under these conditions is:
Cr2O72−+6I−+14H+→2Cr3++3I2+7H2O
From this equation, chromium is reduced from +6 in Cr2O72− to +3 in Cr3+, which subsequently forms Cr2(SO4)3 or CrCl3 depending on the acid employed. Each chromium atom thus gains 3 electrons.
Hence, the oxidation state of chromium in the product is Option C) +3.
Q 46ChemistrySection B • Numericalchemical equilibrium
+4 / -1
X2(g)+Y2(g)⇌2Z(g)
X2(g) and Y2(g) are added to a 1 L flask and it is found that the system attains the above equilibrium at T(K) with the number of moles of X2(g),Y2(g) and Z(g) being 3, 3 and 9 mol respectively (equilibrium moles). Under this condition of equilibrium, 10 mol of Z(g) is added to the flask and the temperature is maintained at T(K). Then the number of moles of Z(g) in the flask when the new equilibrium is established is __ . (Nearest integer)
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integer
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
We have the equilibrium X2+Y2⇌2Z in a 1 L flask with equilibrium moles: [X2]=3, [Y2]=3, [Z]=9 mol. Then 10 mol of Z is added and we need the new equilibrium moles of Z.
To begin, we calculate the equilibrium constant Kc.
Since the volume is 1 L, concentrations equal the number of moles:
Kc=[X2][Y2][Z]2=3×392=981=9
Next, we set up the ICE table after adding 10 mol of Z.
After adding 10 mol Z, the initial (non-equilibrium) concentrations are:
[X2]=3, [Y2]=3, [Z]=9+10=19 mol.
The reaction quotient Q=3×3192=9361≈40.1>Kc=9.
Since Q>Kc, the reaction will shift backward (to the left), consuming Z and producing X2 and Y2.
X2
Y2
Z
Initial:
3
3
19
Change:
+x
+x
−2x
Equilibrium:
3+x
3+x
19−2x
We then apply the equilibrium condition.
Kc=(3+x)(3+x)(19−2x)2=(3+x)2(19−2x)2=9
We solve the resulting equation.
Taking the square root of both sides (both numerator and denominator are positive):
3+x19−2x=3
19−2x=3(3+x)=9+3x
19−9=3x+2x
10=5x
x=2
Finally, we find the new equilibrium moles of Z.
[Z]=19−2x=19−4=15
The answer is 15.
Q 47ChemistrySection B • Numericalaldehydes ketones and carboxylic acids
+4 / -1
Consider the following reaction of benzene.
In compound (Q), the percentage of oxygen is ___ %. (Nearest integer)
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integer
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to determine the mass percentage of oxygen in compound (Q) obtained from the given reaction sequence starting with benzene.
1. Reaction Analysis:
Step 1: Friedel-Crafts Acylation (Formation of P) Benzene reacts with the acyl chloride end of the bifunctional reagent in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3. The chlorine atom acts as a leaving group, forming an acylium ion intermediate that attacks the benzene ring.
P=1-phenylbutane-1,3-dione (as shown in the reaction scheme: a benzene ring substituted with a −CO−CH2−CO−CH3 chain).
Step 2: Intramolecular Aldol Condensation (Formation of Q) Treating the 1,3-dione (P) with aqueous NaOH and heat (Δ) drives an intramolecular aldol condensation. The base abstracts an acidic alpha-proton from the terminal methyl group (−CO−CH3) to form a nucleophilic enolate ion. This ion attacks the benzylic carbonyl carbon to form a stable 5-membered ring. Subsequent dehydration (−H2O) yields the final cyclic α,β-unsaturated ketone product (Q) displayed in the diagram.
Q=3-phenylcyclopent-2-en-1-one
2. Mass Percentage of Oxygen:
Percentage of Oxygen=(Total Molar Mass of QMass of Oxygen)×100
Percentage of Oxygen=(15816)×100≈10%
Answer: 10
Q 48ChemistrySection B • Numericalredox reactions
+4 / -1
200 cc of x×10−3M potassium dichromate is required to oxidise 750 cc of 0.6 M Mohr's salt solution in acidic mediun. Here x =___________
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integer
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
According to the law of equivalence,
The milliequivalents of the oxidant = (K2Cr2O7, n=6)
must equal those of the reductant (Mohr's salt, n=1).
Using the formula: (M1×n1×V1)=(M2×n2×V2),
we get (x×10−3×6)×200=(0.6×1)×750.
This simplifies to 1.2x=450,
which yields x=375.
Q 49ChemistrySection B • Numericalsolutions
+4 / -1
Two liquids A and B form an ideal solution. At 320 K, the vapour pressure of the solution, containing 3 mol of A and 1 mol of B is 500 mm Hg. At the same temperature, if 1 mol of A is farther added to this solution, vapour pressure of the solution increases by 20 mm Hg. Vapour pressure (in mm Hg) of B in pure state is ____ . (Nearest integer)
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integer
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
To begin, we apply Raoult's law to find the vapour pressure of pure B.
For an ideal solution, the total vapour pressure is
Ptotal=xAPA∗+xBPB∗
where xA,xB are mole fractions and PA∗,PB∗ are the vapour pressures of the pure components.
In the first mixture, there are 3 mol of A and 1 mol of B, giving a total of 4 mol. Thus
xA=3/4 and xB=1/4.
Substituting into Raoult's law gives
43PA∗+41PB∗=500⋯(1)
After adding 1 mol of A, the amounts become 4 mol of A and 1 mol of B (total 5 mol), and the vapour pressure rises to 520 mm Hg.
The new mole fractions are xA=4/5 and xB=1/5.
Substituting again yields
54PA∗+51PB∗=520⋯(2)
We now solve these equations simultaneously. Rewriting equation (1) gives
3PA∗+PB∗=2000⋯(1′)
and equation (2) becomes
4PA∗+PB∗=2600⋯(2′)
Subtracting (1') from (2') yields
PA∗=2600−2000=600 mm Hg
Substituting this value back into (1') gives
3(600)+PB∗=2000
1800+PB∗=2000
PB∗=200 mm Hg
The answer is 200 mm Hg.
Q 50ChemistrySection B • Numericalcoordination compounds
+4 / -1
Total number of unpaired electrons present in the central met al atoms/ions of [Ni(CO)4],[NiCl4]2−,[PtCl2(NH3)2],[Ni(CN)4]2− and [Pt(CN)4]2− is_____
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integer
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
To find the total number of unpaired electrons in the central metal atoms/ions of the given complexes, we analyze each complex individually by determining the oxidation state of the central metal, its electron configuration, and the geometry and ligand field strength to assess the number of unpaired electrons.
Complex 1: [Ni(CO)4]
- Oxidation state of Ni: CO is neutral, so Ni has oxidation state 0.
- Ni(0) has electron configuration [Ar] 3d84s2. In coordination, CO is a strong field ligand, and the complex is tetrahedral.
- Strong field ligands cause pairing of electrons. The complex is diamagnetic, so unpaired electrons = 0.
Complex 2: [NiCl4]2−
- Oxidation state of Ni: Let oxidation state be x. Charge from Cl is -1 each, so x + 4(-1) = -2 → x = +2.
- Ni^{2+} has electron configuration [Ar] 3d8.
- Cl− is a weak field ligand, and the complex is tetrahedral. In a tetrahedral field with weak field ligands, the complex is high-spin.
- For d8 in tetrahedral splitting: the t2 orbitals (lower energy, 3 orbitals) hold 6 electrons (paired), and the remaining 2 electrons occupy the e orbitals (higher energy, 2 orbitals) with one electron each, resulting in 2 unpaired electrons.
Complex 3: [PtCl2(NH3)2]
- Oxidation state of Pt: Let oxidation state be x. Cl has -1 charge, NH3 is neutral, so x + 2(-1) + 2(0) = 0 → x = +2.
- Pt2+ has electron configuration [Xe] 4f145d8.
- The complex is square planar (common for Pt2+). Both Cl− and NH3 are ligands that lead to strong field splitting in square planar geometry.
- For d8 in square planar field: the dxy,dxz,dyz orbitals hold 6 electrons (paired), and the dz2 orbital holds the remaining 2 electrons (paired), with dx2−y2 empty. Thus, unpaired electrons = 0.
Complex 4: [Ni(CN)4]2−
- Oxidation state of Ni: Let oxidation state be x. CN has -1 charge, so x + 4(-1) = -2 → x = +2.
- Ni2+ has electron configuration [Ar] 3d8.
- CN− is a strong field ligand, and the complex is square planar.
- For d8 in square planar field with strong field ligands: electrons pair completely (similar to Pt2+ case), so unpaired electrons = 0.
Complex 5: [Pt(CN)4]2−
- Oxidation state of Pt: Let oxidation state be x. CN has -1 charge, so x + 4(-1) = -2 → x = +2.
- Pt2+ has electron configuration [Xe] 4f145d8.
- CN− is a strong field ligand, and the complex is square planar.
- For d8 in square planar field: electrons pair completely, so unpaired electrons = 0.
Both of these values of x satisfy the given equation
∴ Sum of real solutions =(1)+(−1)=0
Hence, option B is the correct choice
Q 52MathematicsSection A • MCQvector algebra
+4 / -1
Let a=i−2j+3k,b=2i+j−k,c=λi+j+k and v=a×b. If v⋅c=11 and the length of the projection of b on c is p, then 9p2 is equal to
A
12
B
9
C
4
D
6
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Computing the cross product v=a×b, we evaluate the determinant
v=i^12j^−21k^3−1
which expands as
=i^[(−2)(−1)−(3)(1)]−j^[(1)(−1)−(3)(2)]+k^[(1)(1)−(−2)(2)]
then simplifies to
=i^[2−3]−j^[−1−6]+k^[1+4]
and finally yields
=−i^+7j^+5k^.
Using v⋅c=11 we write
v⋅c=(−1)(λ)+(7)(1)+(5)(1)=−λ+7+5=12−λ
so that 12−λ=11, which implies λ=1. Thus c=i^+j^+k^.
The length of projection of b on c is given by
p=∣c∣∣b⋅c∣,
with
b⋅c=(2)(1)+(1)(1)+(−1)(1)=2+1−1=2
and
∣c∣=1+1+1=3,
hence
p=3∣2∣=32.
Since
p2=34,
it follows that
9p2=9×34=12.
The correct answer is Option (1): 12.
Q 53MathematicsSection A • MCQlimits continuity and differentiability
+4 / -1
If f(x)={xa∣x∣+x2−2(sin∣x∣)(cos∣x∣)b,x=0,x=0 is continuous at x = 0, then a + b is equal to
A
1
B
0
C
2
D
4
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
For continuity at x = 0: limx→0+xax+x2−2sinxcosx=limx→0+xax+x2−sin2x
Bag A contains 9 white and 8 black balls, while bag B contains 6 white and 4 black balls. One ball is randomly picked up from the bag B and mixed up with the balls in the bag A. Then a ball is randomly drawn from the bag A. If the probability, that the ball drawn is white, is qp,gcd(p,q)=1, then p+q is equal to
A
23
B
22
C
21
D
24
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Bag A contains 9 white and 8 black balls and Bag B contains 6 white and 4 black balls.
It is given that one ball is picked from Bag B and mixed with the balls in Bag A. Then one ball is picked from Bag A and we have to find the probability that the ball picked is white.
Two cases will be formed.
Case 1: White ball is picked from Bag B and mixed with the other balls in Bag A.
Probability of picking a white ball from Bag B = 106
Now, it is mixed with the balls in Bag A.
Bag A: 10 white and 8 black balls.
Probability of picking a white ball from Bag A = 1810
Probability of picking a white ball from Bag A given that a white ball is picked from Bag B = 106×1810=31
Case 2: Black ball is picked from Bag B and mixed with the other balls in Bag A.
Probability of picking a black ball from Bag B = 104
Now, it is mixed with the balls in Bag A.
Bag A: 9 white and 9 black balls.
Probability of picking a white ball from Bag A = 189
Probability of picking a white ball from Bag A given that a black ball is picked from Bag B = 104×189=51
So, the probability of picking a white ball from Bag A after picking a ball from Bag B = 31+51=158
It is in the form of qp where the greatest common divisor of (p,q)=1
Q 56MathematicsSection A • MCQpermutations and combinations
+4 / -1
The number of ways, in which 16 oranges can be distributed to four children such that each child gets at least one orange , is
A
429
B
384
C
455
D
403
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Firstly, we can give one orange to each child. There are four children. So, the remaining oranges now are 16 - 4 = 12.
Now we distribute 12 oranges among 4 children with no restriction.
We can directly apply the formula here, i.e. n things can be distributed among r candidates in n+r−1Cr−1 ways.
Here, n = 12 and r = 4
Applying the formula, we get: 12+4−1C4−1=15C3=3×2×115×14×13 = 455
Q 57MathematicsSection A • MCQsets and relations
+4 / -1
Let A = {0 ,1,2,...,9}. Let R be a relation on A defined by (x,y) ∈ R if and only if ∣x−y∣ is a multiple of 3.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: n(R)=36. Statement II: R is an equivalence relation. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
B
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
D
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let A={0,1,2,…,9}. The relation R on A is defined by (x,y)∈R if and only if ∣x−y∣ is a multiple of 3. We verify Statement I (n(R)=36) and Statement II (R is an equivalence relation).
Since two elements x,y∈A are related precisely when 3∣(x−y), they have the same remainder upon division by 3. Hence the equivalence class for remainder 0 is {0,3,6,9}, which has 4 elements; the class for remainder 1 is {1,4,7} with 3 elements; and the class for remainder 2 is {2,5,8} with 3 elements.
Now, to show that R is an equivalence relation, observe that ∣x−x∣=0 is a multiple of 3, so R is reflexive. Moreover, if ∣x−y∣ is a multiple of 3 then ∣y−x∣=∣x−y∣ is also a multiple of 3, giving symmetry. Furthermore, if 3∣(x−y) and 3∣(y−z), then 3∣((x−y)+(y−z))=3∣(x−z), which establishes transitivity. Therefore, R is an equivalence relation.
Next, the total number of ordered pairs in R is the sum of k2 over the sizes of the equivalence classes, giving
n(R)=42+32+32=16+9+9=34.
Since 34=36, Statement I is incorrect.
The correct answer is Option (2): Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Q 58MathematicsSection A • MCQfunctions
+4 / -1
Consider two sets A={x∈Z:∣(∣x−3∣−3)≤1} and B={x∈R−{1,2}:x−1(x−2)(x−4)loge(∣x−2∣)=0}. Then the number of onto functions f:A→B is equal to
A
79
B
81
C
62
D
32
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
A = {x ∈ Z : ||x-3|-3| ≤ 1}. |x-3| ∈ [2,4], so x-3 ∈ [-4,-2]∪[2,4], x ∈ {-1,0,1,5,6,7}. |A| = 6.
B = {x ∈ R\{1,2}: (x-2)(x-4)ln|x-2|/(x-1) = 0}. Solutions: x=4 (from x-4=0) or |x-2|=1 giving x=3 (x=1 excluded). So B = {3,4}. |B| = 2.
Onto functions from 6-element set to 2-element set: 2⁶ - 2 = 62.
The answer is Option 3: 62.
Q 59MathematicsSection A • MCQcircle
+4 / -1
If the points of intersection of the ellipses x2+2y2−6x−12y+23=0 and 4x2+2y2−20x−12y+35=0 lie on a circle of radius r and centre (a, b), then the value of ab+18r2 is
To find the intersection points, subtract Ellipse 1 from Ellipse 2:
3x2−14x+12=0
Using quadratic formula: x=614±196−144=614±52=614±213=37±13
To find the circle through the intersection points, we use the family λ(Ellipse 1)+μ(Ellipse 2)=0 and choose λ,μ so the coefficients of x2 and y2 are equal (circle condition).
Subtract: 3x2−14x+12=0. This is the radical axis (a pair of vertical lines). Adding k times this to Ellipse 1:
(1+3k)x2+2y2+(−6−14k)x−12y+(23+12k)=0
For a circle: 1+3k=2, so k=1/3.
2x2+2y2+(−6−14/3)x−12y+(23+4)=0
2x2+2y2−332x−12y+27=0
x2+y2−316x−6y+227=0
Center: a=38, b=3.
r2=(38)2+9−227=964+9−227=18128+162−243=1847
ab+18r2=38×3+18×1847=8+47=55
The correct answer is Option C: 55.
Q 60MathematicsSection A • MCQparabola
+4 / -1
An equilateral triangle OAB is inscribed in the parabola y2=4x with the vertex O at the vertex of the parabola. Then the minimum distance of the circle having AB as a diameter from the origin is
A
4(6+3)
B
2(8−33)
C
2(3+3)
D
4(3−3)
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Since the parabola y2=4x has vertex at the origin O(0,0) and parameter a=1, any point on it can be written as (t2,2t). By symmetry about the x-axis, let A=(t2,2t) and B=(t2,−2t) for some t>0.
Next, since AB=∣2t−(−2t)∣=4t and OA=t4+4t2=tt2+4, imposing the equilateral condition OA=AB gives tt2+4=4t which simplifies to t2+4=4⟹t2+4=16⟹t2=12⟹t=23.
Using this value yields A=(12,43) and B=(12,−43). The midpoint of AB, which is the center of the circle having AB as diameter, is M=(12,0), and its radius is 2AB=24×23=43.
Since the distance from the origin to the center is OM=122+02=12, the minimum distance from the origin to the circle is OM−r=12−43=4(3−3).
The correct answer is Option 4: 4(3−3).
Q 61MathematicsSection A • MCQstraight lines and pair of straight lines
+4 / -1
Let A (1, 2) and C(- 3, -6) be two diagonally opposite vertices of a rhombus, whose sides AD and BC are parallel to the line 7x−y=14. If B (α,β) and D (γ,δ) are the other two vertices, then ∣α+β+γ+δ∣ is equal to
A
1
B
6
C
3
D
9
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Given: Vertices A(1,2) and C(−3,−6) are diagonally opposite. Sides AD and BC are parallel to 7x−y=14 (Slope m=7). Find ∣α+β+γ+δ∣ where B(α,β) and D(γ,δ).
Midpoint of Diagonals: In a rhombus, diagonals bisect each other. The midpoint M of AC is also the midpoint of BD.
M=(21−3,22−6)=(−1,−2)
Since M is the midpoint of BD:
2α+γ=−1⟹α+γ=−2
2β+δ=−2⟹β+δ=−4
α+β+γ+δ=(α+γ)+(β+δ)=−2+(−4)=−6
∣−6∣=6
Q 62MathematicsSection A • MCQtrigonometric ratios and identities
+4 / -1
Let 2π<θ<π and cotθ=−221. Then the value of sin(215θ)(cos8θ+sin8θ)+cos(215θ)(cos8θ−sin8θ) is equal to
Q 65MathematicsSection A • MCQarea under the curves
+4 / -1
The area of the region enclosed between the circles x2+y2=4 and x2+(y−2)2=4 is
A
32(4π−33)
B
34(2π−3)
C
34(2π−33)
D
32(2π−33)
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
x2+y2=4(C1),x2+(y−2)2=4(C2)
Centers:((0,0)),((0,2)),radius(r=2). Distance between centers(d=2).
Area of intersection of two equal circles: A=2r2cos−1!(2rd)−2d4r2−d2
Substitute (r=2,d=2): A=2(4)cos−1(21)−1⋅16−4
=8⋅3π−12 =38π−23
Factor: =32(4π−33)
Q 66MathematicsSection A • MCQvector algebra
+4 / -1
Let a,b,c be three vectors such that a×b=2(a×c). If ∣a∣,∣b∣=4,∣c∣=2, and the angle between b and c is 60o, then ∣a⋅c is
A
4
B
2
C
0
D
1
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Since a×b=2(a×c), it follows that a×b−2(a×c)=0 and hence a×(b−2c)=0. This implies that a is parallel to (b−2c), so one can write (b−2c)=λa for some scalar λ.
Taking magnitudes squared of both sides gives ∣b−2c∣2=λ2∣a∣2, which expands to ∣b∣2−4b⋅c+4∣c∣2=16λ2. Now b⋅c=∣b∣∣c∣cos60°=4×2×21=4, so this becomes 16−16+16=16λ2⟹λ2=1⟹λ=±1.
Next, taking the dot product with c in (b−2c)=λa yields a⋅c=λ(b−2c)⋅c=λb⋅c−2∣c∣2=λ4−8=λ−4. When λ=1, a⋅c=−4 and thus ∣a⋅c∣=4; similarly, when λ=−1, a⋅c=4 so again ∣a⋅c∣=4.
The correct answer is Option A: 4.
Q 67MathematicsSection A • MCQtrigonometric ratios and identities
+4 / -1
The least value of (cos2θ−6sinθcosθ+3sin2θ+2) is
A
4−10
B
1
C
4+10
D
-1
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to find the minimum value of E=cos2θ−6sinθcosθ+3sin2θ+2.
Since cos2θ=21+cos2θ, sin2θ=21−cos2θ and sinθcosθ=2sin2θ, substituting these into the expression gives
E=21+cos2θ−6⋅2sin2θ+3⋅21−cos2θ+2
which simplifies to
=21+2cos2θ−3sin2θ+23−23cos2θ+2
and further to
=4−cos2θ−3sin2θ.
For an expression of the form acosϕ+bsinϕ, the range is [−a2+b2,a2+b2], so here with a=−1 and b=−3 we have
(−1)2+(−3)2=1+9=10
and hence −cos2θ−3sin2θ varies between −10 and 10.
Therefore the minimum value of E is
Emin=4+(−10)=4−10
The correct answer is Option 1: 4−10.
Q 68MathematicsSection A • MCQhyperbola
+4 / -1
Let PQ be a chord of the hyperbola 4x2−b2y2=1, perpendicular to the x-axis
such that OPQ is an equilateral triangle, O being the centre of the hyperbola. If the eccentricity of the hyperbola is 3. then the area of the triangle OPQ is
A
59
B
583
C
23
D
511
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
e2=1+a2b2⟹3=1+4b2⟹4b2=2⟹b2=8.
Equation: 4x2−8y2=1. Equilateral Triangle Property: In △OPQ, if P=(x1,y1), then because it's equilateral and PQ is vertical, the angle POX is 30∘.
Thus, tan30∘=x1y1⟹31=x1y1⟹y1=3x1.
Solve for Point P:
Substitute y2=3x2 into the hyperbola:
4x2−8x2/3=1⟹4x2−24x2=1⟹246x2−x2=1⟹5x2=24⟹x2=524. Area of Triangle:
Area =43(side)2. Side PQ=2y1.
Side length squared s2=(2y1)2=4⋅3x2=4⋅324/5=532.
Area =43⋅532=583.
Correct Answer: B (83/5)
Q 69MathematicsSection A • MCQsequences and series
+4 / -1
Let ∑k=1nak=αn2+βn. If a10=59 and a6=7a1, then α+β is equal to
A
7
B
12
C
5
D
3
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Sn=αn2+βn.
an=Sn−Sn−1=α(2n−1)+β.
a10=19α+β=59. a1=α+β. a6=11α+β=7(α+β)=7α+7β.
4α=6β⟹α=3β/2.
From 19(3β/2)+β=59
59β/2=59, β=2, α=3.
α+β=5.
Q 70MathematicsSection A • MCQmatrices and determinants
+4 / -1
The system of linear equations x+y+z=6 2x+5y+az=36 x+2y+3z=b
A
unique solution for a = 8 and b = 16
B
infinitely many solutions for a = 8 and b = 16
C
unique solution for a= 8 and b = 14
D
infinitely many solutions for a = 8 and b = 14
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given the system of linear equations:
x+y+z=6⋯(1)
2x+5y+az=36⋯(2)
x+2y+3z=b⋯(3)
The coefficient matrix is:
A=1211521a3
Its determinant is
det(A)=1(15−2a)−1(6−a)+1(4−5)=15−2a−6+a−1=8−a.
Since det(A)=8−a, for a=8 we have det(A)=0, so the system does not have a unique solution and Options 1 and 3 are eliminated.
Substituting a=8 into the augmented matrix gives
121152183∣∣∣636b.
Applying R2→R2−2R1 yields (0,3,6∣24) and then R3→R3−R1 yields (0,1,2∣b−6). Finally, R3→R3−31R2 gives (0,0,0∣b−14).
For consistency (infinitely many solutions) we require b−14=0, so b=14. If instead b=16, then b−14=2=0 and the system is inconsistent (no solution). Therefore the correct answer is Option 4: infinitely many solutions for a=8 and b=14.
Q 71MathematicsSection B • Numericaldifferential equations
+4 / -1
If the solution curve y=f(x) of the differential equation (x2−4)y′−2xy+2x(4−x2)2=0,x>2, passes through the point (3, 15), then the local maximum value of f is __________
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integer
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
The given differential equation is(x2−4)y′−2xy+2x(4−x2)2=0,x>2
Rewrite it in the standard linear form y′+P(x)y=Q(x).
Divide the whole equation by x2−4 (which is positive for x>2):
y′−x2−42xy+x2−42x(4−x2)2=0
Because (4−x2)2=(x2−4)2, the last term simplifies to 2x(x2−4). Thus
y′−x2−42xy+2x(x2−4)=0
Move the non-homogeneous term to the right:
y′−x2−42xy=−2x(x2−4)−(1)
Here P(x)=−x2−42x and Q(x)=−2x(x2−4).
Integrating factor
The integrating factor (I.F.) is μ(x)=exp(∫P(x)dx).
∫P(x)dx=∫−x2−42xdx
Put u=x2−4⟹du=2xdx, giving
∫−udu=−ln∣u∣=−ln∣x2−4∣
Hence μ(x)=e−ln∣x2−4∣=(x2−4)−1,x>2
Using the integrating factor
Multiplying equation (1) by (x2−4)−1 gives
x2−41y′−(x2−4)22xy=−2x
The left side is the derivative of y(x2−4)−1, so
dxd[x2−4y]=−2x
Integrate with respect to x:
x2−4y=−∫2xdx+C=−x2+C
Therefore y=(x2−4)(−x2+C)=−x4+4x2+Cx2−4C
Simplify:
y=−x4+(4+C)x2−4C−(2)
Finding the constant using the point (3, 15)
Substitute x=3,y=15 into (2):
15=−81+(4+C)9−4C=−81+36+9C−4C=−45+5C
5C=60⟹C=12
Hence the explicit solution is
y=−x4+16x2−48−(3)
Locating critical points
Differentiate (3):
y′=dxdy=−4x3+32x=−4x(x2−8)
Set y′=0:
−4x(x2−8)=0⟹x=0,x=±8=±22
Because the domain is x>2, the only relevant critical point isx=22(≈2.828).
Second-derivative test
Compute y′′:
y′′=dxd(−4x3+32x)=−12x2+32
At x=22, x2=8, hence
y′′=−12(8)+32=−96+32=−64<0
Since y′′<0, x=22 gives a local maximum.
Maximum value of y
Substitute x=22,x2=8,x4=64 into (3):
ymax=−64+16×8−48=−64+128−48=16
Thus, the local maximum value of f is 16.
Q 72MathematicsSection B • Numerical3d geometry
+4 / -1
If the image of the point P(a,2,a) in the line 2x=1y+a=1z is Q and the image of Q in the line 2x−2b=1y−a=−5z+2b is P, then a + b is equal to _____.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integer
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
Compare Direction Ratios:
Line 1: 2x=1y+a=1z (DRs: 2,1,1)
Line 2: 2x−2b=1y−a=−5z+2b (DRs: 2,1,−5)
DRs are not proportional (1=−5). This means the lines are not identical. However, for P to be the image of Q and Q to be the image of P, the segment PQ must be perpendicular to both lines, and its midpoint must lie on both lines.
Midpoint Property: Let M be the midpoint of PQ. M must lie on both lines.
Since Q is the image of P(a,2,a) in Line 1, the midpoint M lies on Line 1.
Let M=(2λ,λ−a,λ).
The vector PM=(2λ−a,λ−a−2,λ−a) must be perpendicular to Line 1 (DRs 2,1,1):
2(2λ−a)+1(λ−a−2)+1(λ−a)=0⟹6λ−4a−2=0⟹3λ=2a+1 Solving for Constants: By calculating the image Q and applying the second transformation, we find the values that satisfy the symmetry.
a=2,b=1⟹a+b=3
Q 73MathematicsSection B • Numericalpermutations and combinations
+4 / -1
Let S denote the set of 4-digit numbers abcd such that a>b>c>d and P denote the set of 5-digit numbers having product of its digits equal to 20. Then n(S)+n(P) is equal to ______
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integer
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
Calculating n(S):
The number of 4-digit numbers abcd such that a>b>c>d can be calculated by selecting 4 digits out of the digits 0, 1, 2,..., 9 and arranging them in descending order. The 4-digit numbers obtained in this manner satisfy all the above conditions and include all possible 4-digit numbers that satisfy the above conditions.
There are 10 digits from 0 to 9, and the selection of 4 digits out of them can be done in 10C4 ways.
n(S)=10C4=6!×4!10!=1×2×3×410×9×8×7=210
Calculating n(P):
We need to find the sets of 5 single-digit numbers whose product equals 20.
20=22×5=5×2×2
So, the only possible sets of 5 digits with a product equal to 20 are {5, 2, 2, 1, 1} and {5, 4, 1, 1, 1}.
The number of 5-digit numbers possible using the 5 digits {5, 2, 2, 1, 1} can be calculated as 2!×2!5!=30 as there are 2 twos and 2 ones.
The number of 5-digit numbers possible using the 5 digits {5, 4, 1, 1, 1} can be calculated as 3!5!=20 as there are 3 ones.
n(P)=20+30=50
n(S)+n(P)=210+50=260
Hence, the correct answer is 260.
Q 74MathematicsSection B • Numericaldefinite integration
+4 / -1
The number of elements in the set S={x:x∈[0,100] and ∫0xt2sin(x−t)dt=x2} is _________
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integer
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to find the number of elements in S={x:x∈[0,100] and ∫0xt2sin(x−t)dt=x2}.
Using the identity sin(x−t)=sinxcost−cosxsint, we write the integral as ∫0xt2sin(x−t)dt=sinx∫0xt2costdt−cosx∫0xt2sintdt.
To evaluate ∫0xt2costdt we apply integration by parts twice, taking u=t2 and dv=costdt to obtain ∫t2costdt=t2sint−∫2tsintdt.
In the integral ∫2tsintdt we set u=2t and dv=sintdt, giving ∫2tsintdt=−2tcost+∫2costdt=−2tcost+2sint and hence ∫t2costdt=t2sint+2tcost−2sint+C so that ∫0xt2costdt=x2sinx+2xcosx−2sinx.
For ∫0xt2sintdt we use integration by parts with u=t2 and dv=sintdt, yielding ∫t2sintdt=−t2cost+∫2tcostdt.
Since ∫2tcostdt=2tsint−∫2sintdt=2tsint+2cost we have ∫t2sintdt=−t2cost+2tsint+2cost+C and thus ∫0xt2sintdt=−x2cosx+2xsinx+2cosx−2.
Substituting these results into the expression for the integral gives LHS=sinx(x2sinx+2xcosx−2sinx)−cosx(−x2cosx+2xsinx+2cosx−2).
Expanding and simplifying leads to =x2sin2x+2xsinxcosx−2sin2x+x2cos2x−2xsinxcosx−2cos2x+2cosx=x2(sin2x+cos2x)−2(sin2x+cos2x)+2cosx=x2−2+2cosx.
Setting this equal to x2 gives 2cosx=2, so cosx=1 and hence x=2kπ,k=0,1,2,….
Requiring 2kπ≤100⟹k≤π50≈15.915, we find k=0,1,2,…,15, giving 16 elements.
The answer is 16.
Q 75MathematicsSection B • Numericalmatrices and determinants
+4 / -1
Let A=0−2320−1−310 and B be a matrix such that B(I−A)=I+A. Then the sum of the diagonal elements of BTB is equal to _________
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integer
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
Since AT=02−3−2013−10=−A, it follows that A is skew-symmetric (AT=−A). Substituting this result into B(I−A)=I+A gives B=(I+A)(I−A)−1.
For a skew-symmetric matrix A, one computes BT=((I−A)−1)T(I+A)T=((I−A)T)−1(I+AT)=(I−AT)−1(I−A)=(I+A)−1(I−A) and therefore BTB=(I+A)−1(I−A)(I+A)(I−A)−1.
Since (I−A)(I+A)=I−A2+A−A=I−A2 and (I+A)(I−A)=I−A2−A+A=I−A2, it follows that (I−A) and (I+A) commute. Therefore, BTB=(I+A)−1(I+A)(I−A)(I−A)−1=I⋅I=I, showing that B is an orthogonal matrix (BTB=I).
Finally, the trace of BTB=I is tr(BTB)=tr(I3)=1+1+1=3.