Official NTA Question PaperFull Solved Paper2025Evening Shift
JEE Main 2025 22nd January Evening Shift Question Paper with Solutions
Official solved question paper for Joint Entrance Examination (Main). Review all 75 questions, official answer keys, and detailed step-by-step solutions below, or attempt online with timer and negative marking.
Two long parallel wires X and Y, separated by a distance of 6 cm , carry currents of 5 A and 4A, respectively, in opposite directions as shown in the figure. Magnitude of the resultant magnetic field at point P at a distance of 4 cm from wire Y is x×10−5T. The value of x is _________ . Take permeability of free space as μ0=4π×10−7 SI units.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 1
A small rigid spherical ball of mass M is dropped in a long vertical tube containing glycerine. The velocity of the ball becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is half of the density of the ball, then the viscous force acting on the ball will be (consider g as acceleration due to gravity)
A
2 Mg
B
23Mg
C
2Mg
D
Mg
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
mg−FB−f=0⇒mg−2mg−f=0∴f=2mg
Q 3PhysicsSection B • Numericalcurrent electricity
+4 / -1
The net current flowing in the given circuit is __________ A.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 1
Official Correct Answer:1
Step-by-Step Solution:
Req=2ΩI=22=1A
Q 4PhysicsSection B • Numericalcircular motion
+4 / -1
A tube of length 1 m is filled completely with an ideal liquid of mass 2 M , and closed at both ends. The tube is rotated uniformly in horizontal plane about one of its ends. If the force exerted by the liquid at the other end is F then angular velocity of the tube is αMF in SI unit. The value of α is _________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 1
Official Correct Answer:1
Step-by-Step Solution:
F=2Mω22ℓ=Mw2ℓω=MℓF
Q 5PhysicsSection B • Numericalelectromagnetic waves
+4 / -1
A parallel plate capacitor of area A=16cm2 and separation between the plates 10 cm , is charged by a DC current. Consider a hypothetical plane surface of area A0=3.2cm2 inside the capacitor and parallel to the plates. At an instant, the current through the circuit is 6A. At the same instant the displacement current through A0 is __________ mA .
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 1200
Official Correct Answer:1200
Step-by-Step Solution:
Jd=AI=166∴ I through small area =Jd×A′=166×3.2=1.2A=1200mA
Q 6PhysicsSection A • MCQray optics
+4 / -1
A symmetric thin biconvex lens is cut into four equal parts by two planes AB and CD as shown in figure. If the power of original lens is 4D then the power of a part of the divided lens is
A
2D
B
8D
C
4D
D
D
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Q 7PhysicsSection A • MCQwave optics
+4 / -1
A transparent film of refractive index, 2.0 is coated on a glass slab of refractive index, 1.45. What is the minimum thickness of transparent film to be coated for the maximum transmission of Green light of wavelength 550 nm . [Assume that the light is incident nearly perpendicular to the glass surface.]
A
68.7 nm
B
137.5 nm
C
94.8 nm
D
275 nm
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
For transmitted green light to be maxima, reflected green should be minima.
A tube of length L is shown in the figure. The radius of cross section at the point (1) is 2 cm and at the point (2) is 1 cm , respectively. If the velocity of water entering at point (1) is 2m/s, then velocity of water leaving the point (2) will be
A
4 m/s
B
6 m/s
C
2 m/s
D
8 m/s
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
A1v1=A2V2⇒2π(2R)2=V2πR2∴V2=8m/s
Q 9PhysicsSection A • MCQmotion in a plane
+4 / -1
A ball of mass 100 g is projected with velocity 20m/s at 60∘ with horizontal. The decrease in kinetic energy of the ball during the motion from point of projection to highest point is
Q 10PhysicsSection A • MCQdual nature of radiation
+4 / -1
A light source of wavelength λ illuminates a metal surface and electrons are ejected with maximum kinetic energy of 2 eV . If the same surface is illuminated by a light source of wavelength 2λ, then the maximum kinetic energy of ejected electrons will be (The work function of metal is 1 eV )
A
5 eV
B
3 eV
C
2 eV
D
6 eV
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let's break down the problem step by step.
The photoelectric equation is given by:
Kmax=λhc−ϕ
where:
Kmax is the maximum kinetic energy of the electrons.
λhc is the energy of the incident photon.
ϕ is the work function of the metal.
For the initial light source of wavelength λ, we know:
2 eV=λhc−1 eV
Solving for λhc gives:
λhc=2 eV+1 eV=3 eV
Now, if the wavelength is halved to 2λ, the photon energy becomes:
λ/2hc=λ2hc=2×3 eV=6 eV
The maximum kinetic energy for the new wavelength is then:
Kmax′=6 eV−1 eV=5 eV
Therefore, the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected electrons when the surface is illuminated by a light source of wavelength 2λ is 5 eV.
The correct answer is Option A.
Q 11PhysicsSection A • MCQcapacitor
+4 / -1
Which one of the following is the correct dimensional formula for the capacitance in F ? M,L,T and C stand for unit of mass, length, time and charge,
A
[F]=[CM−1L−2T2]
B
[F]=[C2M−2L2T2]
C
[F]=[C2M−1L−2T2]
D
[F]=[CM−2L−2T−2]
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
C=Vq=V⋅qq⋅q=WDq2=MLL2T−2C2=C2M−1L−2T2
Q 12PhysicsSection A • MCQheat and thermodynamics
+4 / -1
For a diatomic gas, if γ1=(CvCp) for rigid molecules and γ2=(CvCp) for another diatomic molecules, but also having vibrational modes. Then, which one of the following options is correct? (Cp and Cv are specific heats of the gas at constant pressure and volume)
A
γ2<γ1
B
γ2>γ1
C
γ2=γ1
D
2γ2=γ1
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let's analyze the problem step by step:
For a rigid diatomic molecule (without vibrational modes):
Degrees of freedom:
Translation: 3
Rotation: 2
Total: 5
The molar specific heat at constant volume is given by:
Cv=25R
At constant pressure, it is:
Cp=Cv+R=25R+R=27R
Therefore, the ratio is:
γ1=CvCp=25R27R=57≈1.4
For the diatomic molecule that also has vibrational modes (assuming the vibrational mode is fully excited):
Additional vibrational mode contributions:
Each vibrational mode contributes 2 degrees of freedom (one kinetic and one potential).
Therefore, the degrees of freedom become:
3(translation)+2(rotation)+2(vibration)=7
The molar specific heat at constant volume now is:
Cv=27R
And at constant pressure:
Cp=Cv+R=27R+R=29R
Thus, the ratio is:
γ2=CvCp=27R29R=79≈1.2857
Comparison:
For the rigid molecule, γ1≈1.4.
For the molecule with vibrational modes, γ2≈1.2857.
Clearly, γ2<γ1.
Therefore, the correct option is:
Option A: γ2<γ1
Q 13PhysicsSection A • MCQcircular motion
+4 / -1
A body of mass 100 g is moving in circular path of radius 2 m on vertical plane as shown in figure. The velocity of the body at point A is 10m/s. The ratio of its kinetic energies at point B and C is :
For a short dipole placed at origin O , the dipole moment P is along x-axis, as shown in the figure. If the electric potential and electric field at A are V0 and E0, respectively, then the correct combination of the electric potential and electric field, respectively, at point B on the y-axis is given by
An electron projected perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B moves in a circle. If Bohr's quantization is applicable, then the radius of the electronic orbit in the first excited state is :
A
πeBh
B
πeB4h
C
2πeeBh
D
πeB2h
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
r=eBmv&mvr=2πnh⇒(eBr)r=2πnh⇒r=2πeBnh first excited state n=2∴r=πeBh
Q 16PhysicsSection A • MCQunits and measurements
+4 / -1
The maximum percentage error in the measurment of density of a wire is
[Given, mass of wire =(0.60±0.003)g
radius of wire =(0.50±0.01)cm
length of wire =(10.00±0.05)cm]
A
7
B
8
C
5
D
4
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To determine the maximum percentage error in the density of the wire, follow these steps:
The density of the wire is given by the formula for a cylinder:
ρ=πr2lm
When calculating the maximum percentage (relative) error, you add the relative errors from each variable, taking into account the power to which each variable is raised. Thus, for density:
ρΔρ=mΔm+2rΔr+lΔl
Here:
mΔm is the relative error in the mass.
2rΔr is due to the radius being squared.
lΔl is the relative error in the length.
Now plug in the given values:
Mass: m=0.60g with an error Δm=0.003g
mΔm=0.600.003=0.005 or 0.5%.
Radius: r=0.50cm with an error Δr=0.01cm
rΔr=0.500.01=0.02 or 2%. Since the radius is squared in the formula, multiply by 2:
2rΔr=2×0.02=0.04 or 4%.
Length: l=10.00cm with an error Δl=0.05cm
lΔl=10.000.05=0.005 or 0.5%.
Sum these contributions to find the overall maximum relative error:
ρΔρ=0.005+0.04+0.005=0.05
Converting this relative error into a percentage gives:
0.05×100%=5%
Thus, the maximum percentage error in the density of the wire is 5%, which corresponds to Option C.
Q 17PhysicsSection A • MCQelectromagnetic induction
+4 / -1
A rectangular metallic loop is moving out of a uniform magnetic field region to a field free region with a constant speed. When the loop is partially inside the magnate field, the plot of magnitude of induced emf (ε) with time (t) is given by
A
B
C
D
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Motional emf : ε=Bℓv=constant
Q 18PhysicsSection A • MCQheat and thermodynamics
+4 / -1
Given are statements for certain thermodynamic variables,
(A) Internal energy, volume (V) and mass (M) are extensive variables.
(B) Pressure (P), temperature ( T ) and density ( ρ ) are intensive variables.
(C) Volume (V), temperature (T) and density ( ρ ) are intensive variables.
(D) Mass (M), temperature (T) and internal energy are extensive variables.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(C) and (D) Only
B
(A) and (B) Only
C
(D) and (A) Only
D
(B) and (C) Only
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Extensive variables depends on size or mass of system ex : internal energy, volume, mass
Q 19PhysicsSection A • MCQelectronic devices
+4 / -1
To obtain the given truth table, following logic gate should be placed at G :
A
NOR Gate
B
OR Gate
C
AND Gate
D
NAND Gate
Official Correct Answer:Option ()
Step-by-Step Solution:
For NOR gate : AB=A+B
∴ Truth table A0011B0101Y1101
∴ Bonus
Q 20PhysicsSection A • MCQsimple harmonic motion
+4 / -1
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A simple pendulum is taken to a planet of mass and radius, 4 times and 2 times, respectively, than the Earth. The time period of the pendulum remains same on earth and the planet.
Reason (R) : The mass of the pendulum remains unchanged at Earth and the other planet.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
(A) is false but (R) is true
C
(A) is true but (R) is false
D
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
g=R2GMg′=(2R)2G(4M)=g
A is correct, R is correct ; but since T=2πgℓ doesn't depend on mass ; R doesn't explain A .
Q 21PhysicsSection B • Numericalmagnetics
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A proton is moving undeflected in a region of crossed electric and magnetic fields at a constant speed of 2×105ms−1. When the electric field is switched off, the proton moves along a circular path of radius 2 cm . The magnitude of electric field is x×104N/C. The value of x is _________. Take the mass of the proton =1.6×10−27kg.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 2
Official Correct Answer:2
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let's break down the problem step by step:
When the proton moves undeflected in crossed electric and magnetic fields, the electric and magnetic forces balance each other. That is,
qE=qvB,
which simplifies to
E=vB.
After the electric field is switched off, the proton moves in a circular path under the action of the magnetic force. The magnetic force provides the required centripetal force:
qvB=rmv2.
Solving for the magnetic field B, we get:
B=qrmv.
Now substitute this expression for B back into the equilibrium condition:
E=vB=v(qrmv)=qrmv2.
Plug in the given values:
Proton mass, m=1.6×10−27kg
Speed, v=2×105m/s
Radius, r=2cm=0.02m
Proton charge, q=1.6×10−19C
Thus,
E=(1.6×10−19C)(0.02m)(1.6×10−27kg)(2×105m/s)2.
Calculate the numerator:
(2×105)2=4×1010,
So, (1.6×10−27)×(4×1010)=6.4×10−17.
Calculate the denominator:
(1.6×10−19)×(0.02)=3.2×10−21.
Now compute the electric field:
E=3.2×10−216.4×10−17=2×104N/C.
The problem states that the magnitude of the electric field is x×104N/C. Since we found
E=2×104N/C,
it follows that
x=2.
Q 22PhysicsSection A • MCQwave optics
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Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In Young's double slit experiment, the fringes produced by red light are closer as compared to those produced by blue light.
Reason (R) : The fringe width is directly proportional to the wavelength of light.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(A) is true but (R) is false
B
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is false but (R) is true
D
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
β=dλD&λR>λb∴βR>βb
Q 23PhysicsSection A • MCQalternating current
+4 / -1
A series LCR circuit is connected to an alternating source of emf E. The current amplitude at resonant frequency is I0. If the value of resistance R becomes twice of its initial value then amplitude of current at resonance will be
A
2I0
B
2I0
C
2I0
D
I0
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Initially, I0=Rεm
Finally, I01=2Rεm=2I0
Q 24PhysicsSection A • MCQrotational motion
+4 / -1
The torque due to the force (2i^+j^+2k^) about the origin, acting on a particle whose position vector is (i^+j^+k^), would be
A
j^+k^
B
i^−k^
C
i^−j^+k^
D
i^+k^
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
τ=r×F=i^12j^11k^12=i^−0j^−k^
Q 25PhysicsSection A • MCQwork power and energy
+4 / -1
A force F=2i^+bj^+k^ is applied on a particle and it undergoes a displacement i^−2j^−k^ What will be the value of b, if work done on the particle is zero.
A
31
B
21
C
0
D
2
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To determine the value of b such that the work done on the particle is zero, follow these steps:
The work done by a force on a displacement is given by the dot product:
Work=F⋅d.
Given the force
F=2i^+bj^+k^,
and the displacement
d=i^−2j^−k^,
compute the dot product:
F⋅d=(2)(1)+(b)(−2)+(1)(−1).
Simplify the expression:
F⋅d=2−2b−1=1−2b.
Since the work done is zero:
1−2b=0.
Solve for b:
2b=1,
b=21.
Thus, the value of b is 21, which corresponds to Option B.
Q 26ChemistrySection A • MCQcompounds containing nitrogen
+4 / -1
Match the Compounds (List - I) with the appropriate Catalyst/ Reagents (List - II) for their reduction into corresponding amines.
List - I (Compounds)
List - II (Catalyst/Reagents)
(A)
(I)
<br>NaOH (aqueous) <br>
(B)
(II)
<br>H2/Ni<br>
(C)
<br>R−C≡N<br>
(III)
<br>LiAlH4,H2O<br>
(D)
(IV)
<br>Sn,HCl<br>
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
B
(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
C
(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
D
(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Q 27ChemistrySection B • Numericalcoordination compounds
+4 / -1
The complex of Ni2+ ion and dimethyl glyoxime contains __________ number of Hydrogen (H) atoms.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 14
Official Correct Answer:14
Step-by-Step Solution:
Ni2+ with (dmg) forms [Ni(dmg)2]2+ having 2 H -Bonds as shown :
The no. of H atoms =14
Q 28ChemistrySection A • MCQperiodic classification of elements
+4 / -1
Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : An element in the extreme left of the periodic table forms acidic oxides.
Statement (II) : Acid is formed during the reaction between water and oxide of a reactive element present in the extreme right of the periodic table.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
First, let us re-state the two statements clearly:
Statement (I): An element in the extreme left of the periodic table forms acidic oxides.
Statement (II): Acid is formed during the reaction between water and oxide of a reactive element present in the extreme right of the periodic table.
Analyzing Statement (I)
The extreme left of the periodic table corresponds to the alkali metals (Group 1) and alkaline earth metals (Group 2).
These metals typically form basic (or occasionally amphoteric, in the case of some Group 2 elements) oxides, not acidic oxides.
For example, Na₂O, K₂O, MgO, CaO, etc., all form basic solutions (e.g., Na₂O + H₂O → 2 NaOH).
Hence, Statement (I)—that an element in the extreme left forms acidic oxides—is false.
Analyzing Statement (II)
The extreme right of the periodic table corresponds to the nonmetals in Groups 15, 16, 17 (and noble gases in Group 18).
Nonmetal oxides (such as those of sulfur, phosphorus, chlorine) are generally acidic.
When these oxides dissolve in water, they typically form acids.
Example: SO₃ + H₂O → H₂SO₄ (sulfuric acid)
Example: P₂O₅ + 3 H₂O → 2 H₃PO₄ (phosphoric acid)
Example: Cl₂O₇ + H₂O → 2 HClO₄ (perchloric acid)
Thus, Statement (II)—that acid is formed when water reacts with an oxide of a reactive element in the extreme right—is true.
Conclusion
Statement (I) is false.
Statement (II) is true.
Therefore, the correct choice is:
(D) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.
Q 29ChemistrySection A • MCQredox reactions
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The species which does not undergo disproportionation reaction is :
A
ClO4−
B
ClO3−
C
ClO−
D
ClO2−
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Oxidation States:
In ClO4− (perchlorate), chlorine is in the +7 oxidation state.
In ClO3− (chlorate), chlorine is in the +5 oxidation state.
In ClO2− (chlorite), chlorine is in the +3 oxidation state.
In ClO− (hypochlorite), chlorine is in the +1 oxidation state.
Disproportionation Reaction:
A disproportionation reaction is one in which a species simultaneously undergoes oxidation and reduction. For this to occur, the element must be in an intermediate oxidation state such that it can be oxidized to a higher state and reduced to a lower one.
In ClO− and ClO2−, chlorine is in lower oxidation states (+1 and +3, respectively), making them susceptible to disproportionation. For example, hypochlorite can disproportionate in basic solution as follows:
3ClO−→2Cl−+ClO3−
In ClO3−, chlorine is in an intermediate oxidation state (+5) that, under certain conditions, can undergo disproportionation.
However, in ClO4−, chlorine is in its highest possible oxidation state (+7) and cannot be oxidized further. Since disproportionation requires one part of the species to be oxidized and the other reduced, ClO4− is thermodynamically stable and does not undergo disproportionation.
ClO4− (perchlorate ion) does not undergo disproportionation.
Q 30ChemistrySection B • Numericalthermodynamics
+4 / -1
Consider the following cases of standard enthalpy of reaction (ΔHr∘ in kJmol−1)
The magnitude of ΔHfC2H6(g)∘ is ____________ kJmol−1 (Nearest integer).
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 95
Official Correct Answer:95
Step-by-Step Solution:
C2H6(g)+27O2(g)→2CO2(g)+3H2O(I)ΔH1∘=−1550… (i) C (graphite) +O2(g)→CO2(g)ΔH2∘=−393.5… (ii) H2(g)+21O2(g)→H2O(I)ΔH3∘=−286.......(iii)
From 2×eqn(ii)+3×eqn(iii)−eqn(i)2C(graphite) +3H2(g)→C2H6(g):ΔHfC2H6∘(ΔHf∘)C2H6=2×(−393.5)+3×(−286)−(−1550)=−95kJ/mol
Q 31ChemistrySection B • Numericalsome basic concepts of chemistry
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20 mL of 2 M NaOH solution is added to 400 mL of 0.5 M NaOH solution. The final concentration of the solution is _________ ×10−2M. (Nearest integer)
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 57
Official Correct Answer:57
Step-by-Step Solution:
To determine the final concentration of the NaOH solution, we use the formula for mixing solutions :
MF=V1+V2M1×V1+M2×V2
Where :
M1=2M and V1=20mL: Concentration and volume of the first solution.
M2=0.5M and V2=400mL: Concentration and volume of the second solution.
Substitute the values into the equation:
MF=4202×20+0.5×400
Calculating each term:
2×20=40
0.5×400=200
Add these results:
MF=42040+200=420240≈0.571M
Convert this to scientific notation as the problem specifies the answer should be in ×10−2 form:
MF=57.1×10−2M
Rounded to the nearest integer, the final concentration is:
57
Q 32ChemistrySection B • Numericald and f block elements
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Niobium (Nb) and ruthenium (Ru) have " x " and " y " number of electrons in their respective 4 d orbitals. The value of x+y is __________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 11
Official Correct Answer:11
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to determine the number of electrons each element has in its 4d orbitals and then add them together.
1. Niobium (Nb,Z=41)
The ground‐state electronic configuration of niobium is:
[Kr]4d45s1.
Hence, Niobium has 4 electrons in its 4d orbitals.
2. Ruthenium (Ru,Z=44)
The ground‐state electronic configuration of ruthenium is:
[Kr]4d75s1.
Hence, Ruthenium has 7 electrons in its 4d orbitals.
3. Sum of 4d Electrons
x=4(for Nb),y=7(for Ru).
Therefore,
x+y=4+7=11.
Answer: 11
Q 33ChemistrySection A • MCQaldehydes ketones and carboxylic acids
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Residue (A) + HCl (dil) → Compound (B)
Structure of residue (A) and compound (B) formed respectively is :
A
B
C
D
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Q 34ChemistrySection A • MCQionic equilibrium
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The molar solubility(s) of zirconium phosphate with molecular formula (Zr4+)3(PO43−)4 is given by relation :
A
(5348Ksp)61
B
(8435Ksp)71
C
(6912Ksp)71
D
(9612Ksp)31
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Ksp=(3s)3⋅(4s)4Ksp=6912s7s=(6912Ksp)71
Q 35ChemistrySection A • MCQhydrocarbons
+4 / -1
The alkane from below having two secondary hydrogens is :
A
2,2,4,5-Tetramethylheptane
B
2,2,4,4-Tetramethylhexane
C
4-Ethyl-3,4-dimethyloctane
D
2,2,3,3-Tetramethylpentane
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
4-Ethyl-3,4-dimethyloctane
Q 36ChemistrySection A • MCQchemical bonding and molecular structure
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Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their dipole moment :
HBr,H2S,NF3 and CHCl3
A
HBr<H2S<NF3<CHCl3
B
H2S<HBr<NF3<CHCl3
C
NF3<HBr<H2S<CHCl3
D
CHCl3<NF3<HBr<H2S
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We need to compare the experimental (or well‐established) dipole moments of the given molecules: HBr,H2S,NF3, and CHCl3.
1. NF3
Structure: Trigonal pyramidal (like NH3), but each bond is more polar toward fluorine.
Net dipole moment: Quite small, about 0.23–0.24D (the bond dipoles partly oppose the lone‐pair contribution).
2. HBr
Structure: Simple diatomic.
Dipole moment: About 0.78D.
3. H2S
Structure: Bent (like H2O) but S is less electronegative than O, and the S–H bond angle is wider than the O–H angle in water.
Dipole moment: About 0.95D.
4. CHCl3 (chloroform)
Structure: Tetrahedral around carbon with three Cl and one H.
Dipole moment: About 1.01D.
Ordering from smallest to largest dipole moment
NF3<HBr<H2S<CHCl3.
Hence, the correct choice is:
Option (C)NF3<HBr<H2S<CHCl3.
Q 37ChemistrySection A • MCQthermodynamics
+4 / -1
Match List - I with List - II.
List - I (Partial Derivatives)
List - II (Thermodynamic Quantity)
(A)
(∂T∂G)P
(I)
Cp
(B)
(∂T∂H)P
(II)
−S
(C)
(∂P∂G)T
(III)
Cv
(D)
(∂T∂U)V
(IV)
V
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
B
(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
C
(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
D
(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We want to match each partial derivative in List–I to the appropriate thermodynamic quantity in List–II:
1. (∂T∂G)P
A well-known thermodynamic identity is:
(∂T∂G)P=−S.
Hence,
(A)⟶−S(II).
2. (∂T∂H)P
By definition of the heat capacity at constant pressure,
(∂T∂H)P=CP.
Hence,
(B)⟶CP(I).
3. (∂P∂G)T
A standard thermodynamic relation (for a single‐component system) is:
(∂P∂G)T=V.
Hence,
(C)⟶V(IV).
4. (∂T∂U)V
By definition of the heat capacity at constant volume,
(∂T∂U)V=CV.
Hence,
(D)⟶CV(III).
Final Matching
(A)→(II),(B)→(I),(C)→(IV),(D)→(III).
Which corresponds to:
Option C: (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III).
Q 38ChemistrySection B • Numericalhydrocarbons
+4 / -1
The compound with molecular formula C6H6, which gives only one monobromo derivative and takes up four moles of hydrogen per mole for complete hydrogenation has _________ π electrons.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 8OR6
Official Correct Answer:8OR6
Step-by-Step Solution:
Q 39ChemistrySection A • MCQhaloalkanes and haloarenes
+4 / -1
The maximum number of RBr producing 2-methylbutane by above sequence of reactions is
__________ . (Consider the structural isomers only)
A
5
B
3
C
4
D
1
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
RBrMg dry Ether RMgBrH2OR−H
Hence, RBr Can be
Total 4 Structural isomers.
Q 40ChemistrySection A • MCQatomic structure
+4 / -1
Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : A spectral line will be observed for a 2px→2py transition.
Statement (II) : 2px and 2py are degenerate orbitals.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let us analyze the two statements in the context of atomic orbitals and electronic transitions:
Statement (I)
“A spectral line will be observed for a 2px→2py transition.”
For an emission (or absorption) line to be observed, there must be a difference in energy between the initial and final states.
In a typical hydrogen-like or many-electron atom (without additional external fields or splitting effects), the three 2p orbitals (2px, 2py, 2pz) are degenerate—i.e., they all have the same energy.
Consequently, a transition from 2px to 2py (both having the same energy) would involve no energy change. Hence, no photon is emitted or absorbed for this “transition.” So you would not observe a spectral line for such a transition.
Therefore, Statement (I) is false.
Statement (II)
“2px and 2py are degenerate orbitals.”
Orbitals within the same subshell (e.g., 2p subshell) are typically degenerate (same energy) in an isolated atom (especially a hydrogen-like atom).
Thus, 2px and 2py (and 2pz) do indeed have the same energy.
Therefore, Statement (II) is true.
Conclusion
Statement (I): False
Statement (II): True
Hence, the correct choice is:
Option A: Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Q 41ChemistrySection A • MCQp block elements
+4 / -1
The maximum covalency of a non-metallic group 15 element ' E ' with weakest E−E bond is :
A
5
B
3
C
4
D
6
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Among the group 15 elements (N, P, As, Sb, Bi), the lightest two (N and P) are commonly considered nonmetals. Of these, nitrogen (N) is known to have the weakest single bond to itself (N–N).
The N–N single‐bond enthalpy (≈160\,kJ/mol) is lower (weaker) than the P–P single‐bond enthalpy (≈200\,kJ/mol).
Therefore, the “nonmetallic group 15 element with the weakest E–E bond” is nitrogen.
Maximum Covalency of Nitrogen
Although nitrogen typically forms three covalent bonds in neutral compounds (e.g., NH3), it can expand to four bonds in certain cationic species such as ammonium NH4+ or NF4+. In such species, nitrogen has a formal positive charge but is still forming four covalent bonds.
Hence, the maximum covalency of nitrogen is 4.
Answer: 4 (Option C).
Q 42ChemistrySection A • MCQhydrocarbons
+4 / -1
When sec-butylcyclohexane reacts with bromine in the presence of sunlight, the major product is :
A
B
C
D
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Formation of more stable free radical intermediate.
Q 43ChemistrySection A • MCQcoordination compounds
+4 / -1
The correct order of the following complexes in terms of their crystal field stabilization energies is :
The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) of a complex depends on two main factors:
Charge/Oxidation State of the Central Metal Atom: Higher oxidation states generally lead to greater crystal field splitting energy (Δ).
Field Strength of the Ligand: Stronger field ligands also result in greater splitting. Additionally, chelating ligands typically increase the field strength.
For octahedral complexes, the CFSE is calculated as:
CFSE=[−0.4t2g+0.6eg]Δ∘
Considering the complexes:
[Co(en)3]3+:
Co exists as Co3+ with electronic configuration t2g6eg0.
CFSE = −2.4(Δ0)1.
[Co(NH3)6]3+:
Co also as Co3+ with t2g6eg0.
CFSE = −2.4(Δ0)2.
[Co(NH3)6]2+:
Co with Co2+ configuration t2g5eg2.
CFSE = −0.8(Δ0)3.
[Co(NH3)4]2+:
Co as Co2+ with different configuration e4t23.
CFSE = −1.2Δt, where Δt=94(Δ0)3.
The order of crystal field splitting energies, based on our criteria, is:
Δt<(Δ0)3<(Δ0)2<(Δ0)1
Therefore, the CFSEs of these complexes compare as follows:
[Co(en)3]3+ has the highest CFSE due to the Δ0 of the strongest field ligand and oxidation state.
[Co(NH3)6]3+ follows with similarly high CFSE due to Co3+.
[Co(NH3)6]2+ has a moderate CFSE.
[Co(NH3)4]2+ has the lowest CFSE with Δt.
This hierarchy of CFSE is determined by both the oxidation state of the cobalt metal and the field strength of the ligands involved.
Q 44ChemistrySection A • MCQelectrochemistry
+4 / -1
Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : Corrosion is an electrochemical phenomenon in which pure metal acts as an anode and impure metal as a cathode.
Statement (II) : The rate of corrosion is more in alkaline medium than in acidic medium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let’s examine both statements one by one and see whether they hold true for typical corrosion processes (e.g., iron rusting):
Statement (I)
"Corrosion is an electrochemical phenomenon in which pure metal acts as an anode and impure metal as a cathode."
Corrosion is electrochemical
True. Corrosion, especially rusting of iron, involves oxidation at one region (the anode) and reduction at another region (the cathode) on the metal’s surface.
Pure metal as anode, impurity as cathode
In many practical cases (e.g., iron containing small amounts of carbon or other impurities), the relatively pure region of the iron is more active (less noble) and tends to oxidize (lose electrons) — that is, it serves as the anode.
The impurity (e.g., carbon-rich region) often behaves more nobly and thus becomes the cathode region where reduction (e.g., oxygen reduction) occurs.
This difference in electrode potentials between the pure region and the impurity region drives the corrosion cell.
Hence, Statement (I) is generally considered true in the usual context of corrosion (like rusting of iron).
Statement (II)
"The rate of corrosion is more in alkaline medium than in acidic medium."
For most common metals (like iron), acidic media typically enhance corrosion because abundant H⁺ ions (and possibly other acidic species) can accelerate the oxidation/dissolution of the metal.
In mildly alkaline or neutral environments, metals often form protective oxide or hydroxide layers that can slow down further corrosion.
While certain strong bases can attack specific metals (e.g., Al in strong NaOH), in general for iron and many other metals, corrosion is more severe in acidic environments than in alkaline ones.
Thus, Statement (II) is false under normal corrosion scenarios (e.g., rusting of iron).
Conclusion
Statement (I): True
Statement (II): False
Therefore, the correct choice (matching these truth values) is:
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Q 45ChemistrySection A • MCQsalt analysis
+4 / -1
Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : Nitrogen, sulphur, halogen and phosphorus present in an organic compound are detected by Lassaigne's Test.
Statement (II) : The elements present in the compound are converted from covalent form into ionic form by fusing the compound with Magnesium in Lassaigne's test.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
B
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
C
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
D
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let’s analyze each statement in the context of the classical (and standard) Lassaigne’s test:
Statement (I)
“Nitrogen, sulphur, halogen, and phosphorus present in an organic compound are detected by Lassaigne's Test.”
This is true.
The Lassaigne’s test is used to detect N, S, X (halogens), and can also be adapted for P in organic compounds.
Statement (II)
“The elements present in the compound are converted from covalent form into ionic form by fusing the compound with Magnesium in Lassaigne's test.”
This is false, because:
In the classical Lassaigne’s test, one fuses the organic compound with sodium metal (Na), not magnesium.
The purpose is indeed to convert elements from their covalent forms (e.g., C–N, C–S, C–X bonds) into their ionic forms (e.g., NaCN, Na₂S, NaX, etc.). But the metal used is sodium, not magnesium.
Hence, while the overall description of “converting covalent to ionic form” is correct, the statement incorrectly specifies “magnesium” instead of “sodium,” making it false as written.
Conclusion
Statement (I) is True.
Statement (II) is False.
Therefore, the correct choice is:
(B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Q 46ChemistrySection A • MCQbiomolecules
+4 / -1
Identify the number of structure/s from the following which can be corelated to D-glyceraldehyde.
A
three
B
two
C
one
D
four
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
In A,B,D−OH group in right hand side then D-configuration is assigned.
Q 47ChemistrySection A • MCQsome basic concepts of chemistry
+4 / -1
Density of 3 M NaCl solution is 1.25g/mL. The molality of the solution is :
A
2.79 m
B
2 m
C
1.79 m
D
3 m
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Molarity of NaCl=3 M(3 moles in 1 L of solution)
Given the density of the solution is 1.25g/mL, the total mass of 1 liter (1000 mL) of the solution is:
1.25g/mL×1000mL=1250g
To find the molality, we need the mass of the solvent (water). First, calculate the mass of NaCl in 1 L of solution. The molar mass of NaCl is approximately:
23g/mol (Na)+35.45g/mol (Cl)≈58.45g/mol
Thus, the mass of NaCl is:
3mol×58.45g/mol≈175.35g
Now, the mass of the solvent (water) is:
1250g (solution)−175.35g (NaCl)≈1074.65g
Convert the mass of the solvent to kilograms:
1074.65g÷1000≈1.07465kg
Molality (m) is defined as the number of moles of solute per kilogram of solvent:
m=1.07465kg3mol≈2.79mol/kg
Thus, the molality of the solution is approximately 2.79m.
Q 48ChemistrySection A • MCQchemical kinetics and nuclear chemistry
+4 / -1
Consider the given figure and choose the correct option :
A
Activation energy of both forward and backward reaction is E1+E2 and reactant is more stable than product.
B
Activation energy of forward reaction is E1+E2 and product is more stable than reactant.
C
Activation energy of backward reaction is E1 and product is more stable than reactant.
D
Activation energy of forward reaction is E1+E2 and product is less stable than reactant.
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
E1 represents the activation energy for the backward reaction.
E1+E2 is the activation energy for the forward reaction.
The product has more energy than the reactant, indicating that the product is less stable compared to the reactant.
This information is crucial in determining the relative stability of reactants and products and the required energy for the reactions to proceed in either direction.
Q 49ChemistrySection A • MCQbasics of organic chemistry
+4 / -1
The most stable carbocation from the following is :
A
B
C
D
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Due to +M effect of -OMe at para position
Q 50ChemistrySection A • MCQcoordination compounds
+4 / -1
Identify the homoleptic complex(es) that is/are low spin.
(A) [Fe(CN)5NO]2−
(B) [CoF6]3−
(C) [Fe(CN)6]4−
(D) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(E) [Cr(H2O)6]2+
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(C) and (D) only
B
(C) only
C
(A) and (C) only
D
(B) and (E) only
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
(A) [Fe(CN)5NO]2−: This is a heteroleptic complex with iron in the Fe2+ oxidation state, resulting in a 3d6 electronic configuration. It forms a low spin complex with electron configuration t2g6eg0 due to the strong field ligands (SFL).
(B) [CoF6]3−: This homoleptic complex contains cobalt in the Co3+ oxidation state, leading to a 3d6 electron configuration. It is a high spin complex with an sp3d2 hybridization due to weak field ligands (WFL).
(C) [Fe(CN)6]4−: This homoleptic complex has iron in the Fe2+ state, giving a 3d6 configuration. It forms a low spin complex with hybridization d2sp3 and electron configuration t2g6eg0, due to the strong field nature of the cyanide ligands.
(D) [Co(NH3)6]3+: This homoleptic complex contains cobalt in the Co3+ state, resulting in a 3d6 electron configuration. It forms a low spin complex with hybridization d2sp3 and configuration t2g6eg0 due to the strong field ligands.
(E) [Cr(H2O)6]2+: This homoleptic complex with chromium in the Cr2+ state results in a 3d4 electronic configuration. It is a high spin complex with hybridization d2sp3 and configuration t2g3eg1 due to weak field ligands.
In summary, the homoleptic complexes that are low spin are:
(C) [Fe(CN)6]4−
(D) [Co(NH3)6]3+
Q 51MathematicsSection A • MCQparabola
+4 / -1
Let P(4,43) be a point on the parabola y2=4ax and PQ be a focal chord of the parabola. If M and N are the foot of perpendiculars drawn from P and Q respectively on the directrix of the parabola, then the area of the quadrilateral PQMN is equal to :
A
3343
B
83433
C
173
D
82633
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
(4,43) lies on y2=4ax⇒48=4a.44a=12⇒y2=12x is equation of parabola Now, parameter of P is t1=32⇒ Parameters of Q
is t2=−23⇒Q(49,−33) Area of trapezium PQNM =21MN⋅(PM+QN)=21MN⋅(PS+QS)=21MN⋅PQ=2173⋅449=(343)83=3
Q 52MathematicsSection B • Numericalproperties of triangles
+4 / -1
Let A(6,8),B(10cosα,−10sinα) and C(−10sinα,10cosα), be the vertices of a triangle. If L(a,9) and G(h,k) be its orthocenter and centroid respectively, then (5a−3h+6k+100sin2α) is equal to ___________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 145
Official Correct Answer:145
Step-by-Step Solution:
All the three points A,B,C lie on the circle x2+y2=100 so circumcentre is (0,0)
3a+0=h⇒a=3h and 39+0=k⇒k=3 also centroid 36+10cosα−10sinα=h⇒10(cosα−sinα)=3h−6.... (i)
and 38+10cosα−10sinα=k⇒10(cosα−sinα)=3k−8=9−8=1.... (ii) on squaring 100(1−sin2α)=1⇒100sin2α=99 from equ. (i) and (ii) we get h=37 Now 5a−3h+6k+100sin2α=15h−3h+6k+100sin2α=12×37+18+99=145
Q 53MathematicsSection A • MCQpermutations and combinations
+4 / -1
In a group of 3 girls and 4 boys, there are two boys B1 and B2. The number of ways, in which these girls and boys can stand in a queue such that all the girls stand together, all the boys stand together, but B1 and B2 are not adjacent to each other, is :
A
120
B
96
C
72
D
144
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let's break the problem down step by step:
There are two blocks because all girls must stand together and all boys must stand together. The two blocks can be arranged in:
2 ways(i.e., girls first then boys, or boys first then girls).
The girls can be arranged among themselves in:
3!=6 ways.
For the boys (4 in total), they must be arranged such that the specific boys B1 and B2 are not adjacent.
First, calculate the total number of arrangements of 4 boys:
4!=24.
Next, count the arrangements where B1 and B2 are adjacent. Think of B1 and B2 as a single unit. This unit can be arranged in:
2!=2 ways (since B1 and B2 can swap positions).
Now, with this new unit, we have 3 units in total (the B1B2 unit and the other 2 boys), which can be arranged in:
3!=6 ways.
So, the number of arrangements where B1 and B2 are adjacent is:
2!×3!=2×6=12.
Therefore, the number of valid arrangements for the boys where B1 and B2 are not adjacent is:
24−12=12.
Finally, multiply all the factors together:
Total ways=2×6×12=144.
Thus, the number of ways in which the girls and boys can stand in the queue under the given conditions is 144.
This corresponds to Option D.
Q 54MathematicsSection A • MCQbinomial theorem
+4 / -1
Let α,β,γ and δ be the coefficients of x7,x5,x3 and x respectively in the expansion of
(x+x3−1)5+(x−x3−1)5,x>1. If u and v satisfy the equations αu+βv=18,γu+δv=20,
Q 55MathematicsSection B • Numericaldifferential equations
+4 / -1
Let y=f(x) be the solution of the differential equation dxdy+x2−1xy=1−x2x6+4x,−1<x<1 such that f(0)=0. If 6∫−1/21/2f(x)dx=2π−α then α2 is equal to _________ .
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 27
Put x=sinθdx=cosθdθ=24∫06πcosθsin2θcosθdθ=24∫06π(21−cos2θ)dθ=12[θ−2sin2θ]06π=12(6π−43)=2π−33α2=(33)2=27
Q 56MathematicsSection A • MCQlimits continuity and differentiability
+4 / -1
If \lim _\limits{x \rightarrow \infty}\left(\left(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{1-\mathrm{e}}\right)\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{e}}-\frac{x}{1+x}\right)\right)^x=\alpha, then the value of 1+logeαlogeα equals :
A
e−2
B
e2
C
e
D
e−1
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
α=x→∞lim[(1−ee)(e1−1+xx)]x.
Begin by rewriting the expression inside the limit. Notice that
1+xx=1−1+x1,
so
e1−1+xx=e1−(1−1+x1)=e1−1+1+x1.
Express the constant part as
1−e1=ee−1,
to obtain
e1−1+xx=−ee−1+1+x1.
Multiplying by the prefactor, we have
(1−ee)(e1−1+xx)=1−ee[−ee−1+1+x1].
Split the expression:
1−ee⋅(−ee−1)+1−ee⋅1+x1=−1−ee−1+(1−e)(1+x)e.
Since
1−e=−(e−1),
it follows that
−1−ee−1=−−(e−1)e−1=1.
Hence, the expression simplifies to
1+(1−e)(1+x)e.
Again, replacing 1−e by −(e−1),
1+−(e−1)(1+x)e=1−(e−1)(1+x)e.
Thus, the limit becomes
α=limx→∞(1−(e−1)(1+x)e)x.
For large x, note that
1+x∼x,
so we approximate
α=limx→∞(1−(e−1)xe)x.
Recall the limit
limx→∞(1−xa)x=e−a,
with
a=e−1e.
Therefore,
α=e−e−1e.
Taking the natural logarithm,
lnα=−e−1e.
Now, compute
1+lnαlnα=1−e−1e−e−1e.
Express the denominator with a common denominator:
1−e−1e=e−1e−1−e−1e=−e−11.
Thus,
−e−11−e−1e=1e=e.
The final result is
1+lnαlnα=e.
Q 57MathematicsSection A • MCQfunctions
+4 / -1
Let A={1,2,3,4} and B={1,4,9,16}. Then the number of many-one functions f:A→B such that 1∈f(A) is equal to :
A
151
B
139
C
163
D
127
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Step 1: Total Functions with 1∈f(A)
Any function f:A→B where A={1,2,3,4} and B={1,4,9,16} is defined by choosing one of the four elements of B for each element of A. Thus, the total number of functions is
44=256.
To count those functions where 1 appears at least once in the set f(A), we can use the complementary counting method: subtract the functions that never use 1. If 1 is excluded, each element of A has only 3 choices (namely, {4,9,16}), so the number of such functions is
34=81.
Thus, the number of functions such that 1∈f(A) is
256−81=175.
Step 2: Counting Many-One Functions
In this context, "many-one functions" are understood to be non-injective functions. Since an injective (one-to-one) function from A to B must be a permutation (because both sets have 4 elements), the number of one-to-one functions is
4!=24.
It is important to note that every injective function f:A→B has f(A)=B (a full permutation) which automatically means 1∈f(A).
Thus, the number of many-one (non-injective) functions f:A→B with 1∈f(A) is found by subtracting the one-to-one functions from the total functions that include 1:
175−24=151.
151
This detailed explanation shows that the number of many-one functions f:A→B such that 1∈f(A) is indeed 151.
Q 58MathematicsSection A • MCQellipse
+4 / -1
Let E:a2x2+b2y2=1,a>b and H:A2x2−B2y2=1. Let the distance between the foci of E and the foci of H be 23. If a−A=2, and the ratio of the eccentricities of E and H is 31, then the sum of the lengths of their latus rectums is equal to :
A
10
B
7
C
9
D
8
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given an ellipse
a2x2+b2y2=1,a>b,
and a hyperbola
A2x2−B2y2=1.
It is stated that “the distance between the foci of E and the foci of H is 23.” A natural interpretation is that the foci of the ellipse are separated by
2a2−b2,
and those of the hyperbola by
2A2+B2,
and each distance is equal to 23. That is, we have
2a2−b2=23⟹a2−b2=3,
and
2A2+B2=23⟹A2+B2=3.
We are also given that
a−A=2,
and that the ratio of the eccentricities is
eHeE=31,
where the eccentricity of the ellipse is
eE=aa2−b2=a3,
and the eccentricity of the hyperbola is
eH=AA2+B2=A3.
Thus the ratio becomes
eHeE=3/A3/a=aA=31.
This implies
a=3A.
Now, using the condition a−A=2 together with a=3A, we get
3A−A=2⟹2A=2⟹A=1.
Thus,
a=3.
Next, for the ellipse we have
a2−b2=3⟹9−b2=3⟹b2=6.
For the hyperbola,
A2+B2=3⟹1+B2=3⟹B2=2.
The length of the latus rectum is given by the following formulas:
For the ellipse:
LE=a2b2,
For the hyperbola:
LH=A2B2.
Substitute the computed values:
For the ellipse:
LE=32×6=312=4,
For the hyperbola:
LH=12×2=4.
The sum of the lengths of the latus rectums is then
LE+LH=4+4=8.
Thus, the answer is
8.
Q 59MathematicsSection B • Numericalstraight lines and pair of straight lines
+4 / -1
Let the distance between two parallel lines be 5 units and a point P lie between the lines at a unit distance from one of them. An equilateral triangle PQR is formed such that Q lies on one of the parallel lines, while R lies on the other. Then (QR)2 is equal to _________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 28
Official Correct Answer:28
Step-by-Step Solution:
We set up a coordinate system so that the two parallel lines are given by
y=0andy=5,
since their distance is 5 units. Choose point
P=(0,1)
so that the distance from P to the line y=0 is 1 unit (and its distance to the line y=5 is 4 units).
Let point
Q=(a,0)
be on the line y=0, and let point
R=(b,5)
be on the line y=5. Since triangle PQR is equilateral with side length s, we require:
PQ=PR=QR=s.
A convenient method is to “rotate” Q about P by an angle of 60∘ to obtain R. In complex-number (or vector) terms, if we translate so that P is at the origin, then the rotation is given by
ei60∘=cos60∘+isin60∘=21+i23.
Thus, writing Q in vector form relative to P, we have
Q−P=(a,−1).
Rotating this by 60∘ gives
R−P=(acos60∘−(−1)sin60∘,asin60∘+(−1)cos60∘).
Substituting the values cos60∘=21 and sin60∘=23, we obtain
Q 61MathematicsSection A • MCQsequences and series
+4 / -1
Suppose that the number of terms in an A.P. is 2k,k∈N. If the sum of all odd terms of the A.P. is 40 , the sum of all even terms is 55 and the last term of the A.P. exceeds the first term by 27 , then k is equal to:
Q 62MathematicsSection A • MCQmatrices and determinants
+4 / -1
For a 3×3 matrix M, let trace (M) denote the sum of all the diagonal elements of M. Let A be a 3×3 matrix such that ∣A∣=21 and trace (A)=3. If B=adj(adj(2A)), then the value of ∣B∣+ trace (B) equals :
A
56
B
132
C
174
D
280
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
B=adj(adj(2A))=det(2A)⋅(2A)
Since A is a 3×3 matrix with
det(A)=21,
the determinant of 2A is computed as
det(2A)=23det(A)=8⋅21=4.
Thus,
B=4⋅(2A)=8A.
Now, compute the determinant and the trace of B:
Determinant of B:
det(B)=det(8A)=83det(A)=512⋅21=256.
Trace of B:
trace(B)=trace(8A)=8⋅trace(A)=8⋅3=24.
Finally, adding these results:
det(B)+trace(B)=256+24=280.
Q 63MathematicsSection B • Numericalsets and relations
+4 / -1
Let A={1,2,3}. The number of relations on A, containing (1,2) and (2,3), which are reflexive and transitive but not symmetric, is _________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 3
Official Correct Answer:3
Step-by-Step Solution:
Transitivity
(1,2)∈R,(2,3)∈R⇒(1,3)∈R
For reflexive (1,1),(2,2)(3,3)∈R
Now (2,1),(3,2),(3,1)
(3,1) cannot be taken
(1) (2,1) taken and (3,2) not taken
(2) (3,2) taken and (2,1) not taken
(3) Both not taken
therefore 3 relations are possible.
Q 64MathematicsSection A • MCQvector algebra
+4 / -1
Let a and b be two unit vectors such that the angle between them is 3π. If λa+2b and 3a−λb are perpendicular to each other, then the number of values of λ in [−1,3] is :
A
1
B
3
C
2
D
0
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given two unit vectors a and b with an angle of 3π between them. This means:
a⋅a=b⋅b=1 (since they are unit vectors)
a⋅b=cos3π=21
We need to find the number of values of λ in the interval [−1,3] for which the vectors λa+2b and 3a−λb are perpendicular, meaning their dot product is zero.
Here’s how to solve the problem step by step:
Set up the perpendicular condition by equating the dot product to zero:
(λa+2b)⋅(3a−λb)=0.
Expand the dot product using the distributive property:
Comment : In this question we will not get a unique function g(x), but in order to match the answer we will have to assume g(x)=1−x2xexsin−1x.
Q 66MathematicsSection A • MCQquadratic equation and inequalities
+4 / -1
Let αθ and βθ be the distinct roots of 2x2+(cosθ)x−1=0,θ∈(0,2π). If m and M are the minimum and the maximum values of αθ4+βθ4, then 16(M+m) equals :
Substitute the magnitudes into the distance formula:
d=395=35.
Thus, the perpendicular distance from the point P(2,−10,1) to the line is 35.
Comparing with the options given, the correct answer is:
Option C: 35.
Q 68MathematicsSection A • MCQprobability
+4 / -1
If A and B are two events such that P(A∩B)=0.1, and P(A∣B) and P(B∣A) are the roots of the equation 12x2−7x+1=0, then the value of P(Aˉ∩Bˉ)P(Aˉ∪Bˉ) is :
A
34
B
47
C
49
D
35
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
12x2−7x+1=0x=31,41 Let P(BA)=31&P(AB)=41P(B)P(A∩B)=31&P(A)P(A∩B)=41⇒P(B)=0.3&P(A)=0.4P(A∪B)=P(A)+P(B)−P(A∩B)=0.3+0.4−0.1=0.6NowP(A∩B)P(A∪B)=P(A∪B)P(A∩B)=1−P(A∪B)1−P(A∩B)=1−0.61−0.1=49
Q 69MathematicsSection A • MCQdifferential equations
+4 / -1
If x=f(y) is the solution of the differential equation (1+y2)+(x−2etan−1y)dxdy=0,y∈(−2π,2π) with f(0)=1, then f(31) is equal to :
A
eπ/4
B
eπ/12
C
eπ/6
D
eπ/3
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
dydx+1+y2x=1+y22etan−1y I.F. =etan−1yxtan−1y=∫1+y22(etan−1y)2dy Put tan−1y=t,1+y2dy=dtxetan−1y=∫2e2tdtxetan−1y=e2tan−1y+cx=etan−1y+ce−tan−1y∵y=0,x=11=1+c⇒c=0y=31,x=eπ/6
Q 70MathematicsSection A • MCQapplication of derivatives
+4 / -1
Let f(x)=∫0x2ett2−8t+15dt,x∈R. Then the numbers of local maximum and local minimum points of f, respectively, are :
A
3 and 2
B
2 and 2
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 3
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given
f(x)=∫0x2ett2−8t+15dt,x∈R.
To find the local extrema, we first compute the derivative using the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus and the chain rule.
Step 1. Rewrite the derivative:
Let
F(u)=∫0uett2−8t+15dt,
so that
f(x)=F(x2).
Then by the chain rule,
f′(x)=F′(x2)⋅2x.
Since
F′(u)=euu2−8u+15,
we substitute u=x2 to get
f′(x)=ex2(x2)2−8x2+15⋅2x=ex22x(x4−8x2+15).
Step 2. Factor and Identify Critical Points:
Factor the polynomial x4−8x2+15 by writing it in terms of x2. Let y=x2, then
y2−8y+15=(y−3)(y−5)
so that
x4−8x2+15=(x2−3)(x2−5).
Thus,
f′(x)=ex22x(x2−3)(x2−5).
Since ex2>0 for all x, the zeros of f′(x) are determined by
2x(x2−3)(x2−5)=0.
That gives the critical points:
2x=0⇒x=0,
x2−3=0⇒x=±3,
x2−5=0⇒x=±5.
Step 3. Analyzing the Sign of f′(x):
We need to determine the nature (maximum or minimum) by looking at the sign changes of f′(x) on the intervals determined by the critical points x=−5, x=−3, x=0, x=3, and x=5. Notice that the factor 2x(x2−3)(x2−5) will dictate the sign.
At x=−5: f′(x) changes from negative to positive → local minimum.
At x=−3: f′(x) changes from positive to negative → local maximum.
At x=0: f′(x) changes from negative to positive → local minimum.
At x=3: f′(x) changes from positive to negative → local maximum.
At x=5: f′(x) changes from negative to positive → local minimum.
Step 5. Conclusion:
There are local maximum points at x=−3 and x=3 (2 points in total), and local minimum points at x=−5, x=0, and x=5 (3 points in total).
Thus, the numbers of local maximum and local minimum points of f are 2 and 3, respectively.
The correct option is Option C.
Q 71MathematicsSection A • MCQ3d geometry
+4 / -1
Let a line pass through two distinct points P(−2,−1,3) and Q, and be parallel to the vector 3i^+2j^+2k^. If the distance of the point Q from the point R(1,3,3) is 5 , then the square of the area of △PQR is equal to :
A
148
B
144
C
136
D
140
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
P=(−2,−1,3)
Since the line through P is parallel to the vector
d=(3,2,2),
any point Q on this line can be expressed as:
Q=P+td=(−2+3t,−1+2t,3+2t),
where t is a real number. Given that P and Q must be distinct, we require t=0.
The point R is given by:
R=(1,3,3).
The distance from Q to R is 5, so we have:
[(−2+3t−1)2+(−1+2t−3)2+(3+2t−3)2]=52.
Simplify each coordinate difference:
For the x-coordinate:
−2+3t−1=3t−3=3(t−1).
For the y-coordinate:
−1+2t−3=2t−4=2(t−2).
For the z-coordinate:
3+2t−3=2t.
So the equation becomes:
[3(t−1)]2+[2(t−2)]2+(2t)2=25.
Expanding the squares:
9(t−1)2+4(t−2)2+4t2=25.
Expand each term:
9(t2−2t+1)+4(t2−4t+4)+4t2=25,
which simplifies to:
9t2−18t+9+4t2−16t+16+4t2=25.
Combine like terms:
(9t2+4t2+4t2)−(18t+16t)+(9+16)=25,
17t2−34t+25=25.
Subtract 25 from both sides:
17t2−34t=0.
Factor out 17t:
17t(t−2)=0.
Since t=0, we must have:
t=2.
Substitute t=2 back into the equation for Q:
Q=(−2+3(2),−1+2(2),3+2(2))=(4,3,7).
Next, to find the square of the area of triangle PQR, first compute the vectors:
PQ=Q−P=(4−(−2),3−(−1),7−3)=(6,4,4),
PR=R−P=(1−(−2),3−(−1),3−3)=(3,4,0).
The area of the triangle is given by:
Area=21∥PQ×PR∥.
Calculate the cross product:
PQ×PR=i^63j^44k^40.
Expanding the determinant:
i^-component:
4×0−4×4=−16,
j^-component:
−(6×0−4×3)=12,
k^-component:
6×4−4×3=24−12=12.
Thus,
PQ×PR=(−16,12,12).
Find the magnitude squared of the cross product:
∥PQ×PR∥2=(−16)2+122+122=256+144+144=544.
The square of the area of triangle PQR is:
(Area)2=(21)2∥PQ×PR∥2=41×544=136.
Thus, the square of the area of △PQR is 136.
Q 72MathematicsSection A • MCQtrigonometric functions and equations
+4 / -1
The sum of all values of θ∈[0,2π] satisfying 2sin2θ=cos2θ and 2cos2θ=3sinθ is
so common equation which satisfy both equations is sinθ=21
θ=6π,65π(θ∈[0,2π])
Sum =π
Q 73MathematicsSection A • MCQarea under the curves
+4 / -1
The area of the region enclosed by the curves y=x2−4x+4 and y2=16−8x is :
A
38
B
5
C
8
D
34
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Consider the curves
y=x2−4x+4=(x−2)2
and
y2=16−8x.
Notice that the second equation can be rewritten in terms of x:
8x=16−y2⟹x=2−8y2.
Step 1. Find the Intersection Points
To find the points where the curves intersect, substitute
y=(x−2)2
into
y2=16−8x.
Let
u=x−2so thaty=u2.
Then
y2=u4
and
x=u+2.
Substitute into the second curve:
u4=16−8(u+2).
Simplify the right side:
16−8(u+2)=16−8u−16=−8u.
Thus, the equation becomes
u4+8u=0⟹u(u4/u?∗∗correctingfactor∗∗).
In fact, factor by taking out a common factor u:
u(u3+8)=0.
Thus, either
u=0oru3=−8.
For u=0:
x=u+2=2,y=u2=0.
For u3=−8:
u=−2,sox=−2+2=0,y=(−2)2=4.
The curves intersect at the points (2,0) and (0,4).
Step 2. Express the Curves in Terms of y
It is easier to integrate horizontally by expressing x as a function of y.
From the second curve:
x=2−8y2.
From the first curve, solving
y=(x−2)2
for x gives
x−2=±y.
Since at the intersection (0,4) the x–value is less than 2, we take the negative branch:
x=2−y.
Thus, for a fixed y between 0 and 4, the left boundary is
xleft=2−y,
and the right boundary is
xright=2−8y2.
Step 3. Set Up the Integral for the Area
The horizontal distance between the curves at a given y is
Δx=xright−xleft=(2−8y2)−(2−y)=y−8y2.
Integrate with respect to y from y=0 to y=4:
A=∫04(y−8y2)dy.
Step 4. Evaluate the Integral
Write the integral as
A=∫04y1/2dy−81∫04y2dy.
Compute each term:
For the first integral:
∫y1/2dy=32y3/2.
For the second integral:
∫y2dy=3y3.
Thus,
A=[32y3/2]04−81[3y3]04.
Substitute y=4 (note that at y=0 both terms vanish):
Compute 43/2:
43/2=(4)3=23=8.
Compute the first term:
32×8=316.
Compute the second term:
81⋅364=2464=38.
Therefore, the area is
A=316−38=38.
Final Answer
The area of the region enclosed by the curves is
38.
Q 74MathematicsSection A • MCQmatrices and determinants
+4 / -1
If the system of linear equations :
x+y+2z=62x+3y+az=a+1−x−3y+bz=2b
where a,b∈R, has infinitely many solutions, then 7a+3b is equal to :
A
12
B
9
C
22
D
16
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We begin with the system:
x+y+2z2x+3y+az−x−3y+bz=6,=a+1,=2b.
Step 1. Solve the first equation for x:
x=6−y−2z.
Step 2. Substitute x=6−y−2z into the second equation:
2(6−y−2z)+3y+az=a+1.
Expanding and simplifying:
12−2y−4z+3y+az=a+1⟹y+(a−4)z=a−11.
Call this Equation (I).
Step 3. Substitute x=6−y−2z into the third equation:
−(6−y−2z)−3y+bz=2b.
Expanding and simplifying:
−6+y+2z−3y+bz=2b⟹−2y+(b+2)z=2b+6.
Call this Equation (II).
Step 4. For the system to have infinitely many solutions, the two equations in y and z must be dependent—that is, one must be a constant multiple of the other. Assume there exists a constant k such that
−2=k⋅1⟹k=−2.
Apply this to the coefficient of z and the constant term.
For the z-coefficient in Equations (I) and (II):
b+2=k(a−4)=−2(a−4)=−2a+8.
Thus,
b=−2a+6.
For the constant term:
2b+6=k(a−11)=−2(a−11)=−2a+22.
Substitute b=−2a+6 into this equation:
2(−2a+6)+6=−2a+22⟹−4a+12+6=−2a+22.
Simplify:
−4a+18=−2a+22.
Solve for a:
−4a+18+4a=−2a+22+4a⟹18=2a+22,
2a=18−22=−4⟹a=−2.
Substitute a=−2 into b=−2a+6:
b=−2(−2)+6=4+6=10.
Step 5. We now compute
7a+3b=7(−2)+3(10)=−14+30=16.
Thus, the value of 7a+3b is
16.
Q 75MathematicsSection A • MCQcomplex numbers
+4 / -1
Let the curve z(1+i)+zˉ(1−i)=4,z∈C, divide the region ∣z−3∣≤1 into two parts of areas α and β. Then ∣α−β∣ equals :
A
1+3π
B
1+6π
C
1+2π
D
1+4π
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let z=x+iy(x+iy)(1+i)+(x−iy)(1−i)=4x+ix+iy−y+x−ix−iy−y=42x−2y=4x−y=2∣z−3∣≤1(x−3)2+y2≤1
Area of shaded region =4π⋅12−21⋅1⋅1=4π−21 Area of unshaded region inside the circle =43π⋅12+21⋅1⋅1=43π+21∴ difference of area =(43π+21)−(4π−21)=2π+1