Official NTA Question PaperFull Solved Paper2024Morning Shift
JEE Main 2024 1st February Morning Shift Question Paper with Solutions
Official solved question paper for Joint Entrance Examination (Main). Review all 90 questions, official answer keys, and detailed step-by-step solutions below, or attempt online with timer and negative marking.
A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance C=200pF. It is connected to 230V ac supply with an angular frequency 300rad/s. The rms value of conduction current in the circuit and displacement current in the capacitor respectively are :
A
14.3μA and 143μA
B
13.8μA and 13.8μA
C
13.8μA and 138μA
D
1.38μA and 1.38μA
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To solve this problem, we need to understand how to calculate the rms current in an AC circuit containing a capacitor, as well as the concept of displacement current.
First, the rms (root mean square) value of the current (Irms) in a capacitor when connected to an AC supply is given by:
Irms=Vrms⋅ωC
where Vrms is the rms voltage, ω is the angular frequency, and C is the capacitance.
For an AC supply, the rms voltage is related to the peak voltage (V0) by:
Vrms=2V0
However, we've been given the rms voltage directly, which is 230V. Therefore, we can use this value directly in our calculations.
Given:
C=200pF=200×10−12F
ω=300rad/s
Vrms=230V
Substitute these values into the equation for rms current:
Irms=Vrms⋅ωC=230×300×200×10−12=13.8×10−6A
Therefore, the rms value of the conduction current is 13.8μA.
Now, for the displacement current (which is essentially the current that would "flow" through the dielectric of the capacitor as a result of the changing electric field). In an AC circuit, the displacement current and the conduction current are the same. That's because the displacement current is necessary to sustain the changing electric field between the plates of the capacitor, and this changing field is what causes the conduction current in the leads and the rest of the circuit.
Hence, the rms value of the displacement current is the same as the conduction current, which is 13.8μA.
So, the correct option is:
Option B
13.8μA and 13.8μA
Q 2PhysicsSection A • MCQheat and thermodynamics
+4 / -1
The pressure and volume of an ideal gas are related as PV23=K (Constant). The work done when the gas is taken from state A(P1,V1,T1) to state B(P2,V2,T2) is :
A
2(P2V2−P1V1)
B
2(P1V1−P2V2)
C
2(P2V2−P1V1)
D
2(P1V1−P2V2)
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To find the work done by the gas when it goes from state A to state B, we can look at the definition of work done on or by a gas in a thermodynamic process. For a quasi-static process, the work done W is given by the integral of the pressure P with respect to the volume V:
W=∫V1V2PdV
Given the relationship PV23=K, we can solve for P:
P=V23K
Now, substitute P into the work integral and evaluate it:
W=∫V1V2V23KdV=K∫V1V2V−23dV
To integrate this, we'll use the power rule for integration. The integral of V−23 is −2V−21, so the work done is:
W=K[−2V−21]V1V2=K(−2V2−21+2V1−21)
We can rewrite V−21 as V1:
W=K(−2V21+2V11)
Since P2V223=K and P1V123=K, we can express K in terms of P1 and V1 (or P2 and V2, but we’ll use P1 and V1 for now):
W=P1V123(−2V21+2V11)
W=−2P1V1V1V21+2P1V1V1V11
W=−2P1V1V2V1+2P1V1
Since V2V1=V2V1, and recalling P2V223=K once more:
W=−2P1V1V2V1+2P1V1
W=−2V2P1V123+2P1V1
Putting P1V123 back as K:
W=−2V2K+2P1V1
W=−2P2V2V2V21+2P1V1
W=−2P2V2+2P1V1
So the work done is:
W=2P1V1−2P2V2
Therefore, the correct answer matching the given options is:
Option D: 2(P1V1−P2V2)
Shortcut :
For PVx= constant
If work done by gas is asked then
W∴W==1−xnRΔT Here x=23=−21P2V2−P1V12(P1V1−P2V2)
Q 3PhysicsSection B • Numericalcenter of mass
+4 / -1
The identical spheres each of mass 2M are placed at the corners of a right angled triangle with mutually perpendicular sides equal to 4m each. Taking point of intersection of these two sides as origin, the magnitude of position vector of the centre of mass of the system is x42, where the value of x is ___________ .
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 3
Official Correct Answer:3
Step-by-Step Solution:
1. Center of Mass Coordinates:
The center of mass (COM) of a system of particles is calculated as:
XCOM=∑imi∑imixi
Y_{COM} = \frac{\sum_{i} m_i y_i}{\sum_{i} m_i} <span class="katex-error" title="ParseError: KaTeX parse error: Can't use function '' in math mode at position 1: $̲</p>
<p>where …" style="color:#cc0000">$</p>
<p>where mi is the mass of the i-th particle, and (xi,yi) are its coordinates.</p>
<strong>2. Coordinate Setup:</strong>
<p>Let's place the origin at the right angle of the triangle and align the sides along the x and y axes:</p>
<p></p><ul>
<li>Sphere 1: (4,0)</li><br>
<li>Sphere 2: (0,4)</li><br>
<li>Sphere 3: (0,0)</li>
</ul><p></p>
<strong>3. Calculations:</strong>
<p>Since all spheres have mass 2M, we can simplify the COM calculations:</p>
<p>X_{COM} = \frac{2M \cdot 4 + 2M \cdot 0 + 2M \cdot 0} {2M + 2M + 2M} = \frac{4}{3}</p><p>Y_{COM} = \frac{2M \cdot 0 + 2M \cdot 4 + 2M \cdot 0} {2M + 2M + 2M} = \frac{4}{3}' in math mode at position 95: … of the COM is̲\left(\frac{4}{…" style="color:#cc0000"></p>
<strong>4. Magnitude of Position Vector:</strong>
<p>The position vector of the COM is (34,34). Its magnitude is:</p>
<p>|\vec{r}_{COM}| = \sqrt{\left(\frac{4}{3}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{4}{3}\right)^2} = \frac{4\sqrt{2}}{3}$$
5. Finding x:
We are given that the magnitude of the position vector is of the form x42. Comparing this to our result, we find that x=3.
Answer:
The value of x is 3.
Q 4PhysicsSection A • MCQcircular motion
+4 / -1
A ball of mass 0.5kg is attached to a string of length 50cm. The ball is rotated on a horizontal circular path about its vertical axis. The maximum tension that the string can bear is 400N. The maximum possible value of angular velocity of the ball in rad/s is, :
A
1600
B
20
C
40
D
1000
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To find the maximum possible angular velocity (ω) of the ball, we need to consider the maximum tension the string can bear without breaking. This tension provides the centripetal force needed to keep the ball in a circular path.
The centripetal force (Fc) required for circular motion is given by the formula:
Fc=mrω2
Where:
m = mass of the ball (0.5 kg)
r = radius of the circle (0.5 m, since 50 cm = 0.5 m)
ω = angular velocity in rad/s
The maximum tension the string can bear is also the maximum centripetal force (Fc,max) that can be provided by the string, which is 400 N.
Now we can set up the equation with the given values:
400=0.5×0.5×ω2
⇒400=0.25×ω2
⇒ω2=0.25400
⇒ω2=1600
⇒ω=1600
⇒ω=40rad/s
Therefore, the maximum possible angular velocity of the ball is 40 rad/s, which corresponds to Option C.
Q 5PhysicsSection A • MCQproperties of matter
+4 / -1
With rise in temperature, the Young's modulus of elasticity :
A
changes erratically
B
increases
C
decreases
D
remains unchanged
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The Young's modulus of elasticity, denoted as E, is a measure of the stiffness of a material. It defines the relationship between stress (force per unit area) and strain (deformation) in a material in the linear (elastic) portion of the stress-strain curve. As temperature changes, the interatomic distances and bonding energies within a material also change, affecting its mechanical properties, including its elasticity.
For most materials, as the temperature increases, the atoms within the material gain kinetic energy and vibrate more vigorously. This increased vibration results in a reduction of the forces between atoms, making it easier for the material to deform under a given load. Hence, generally, the Young's modulus E decreases with increasing temperature because the material becomes softer and less stiff. Thus, the correct option here would be:
Option C: decreases
However, it should be noted that the exact relationship between temperature and Young's modulus can vary depending on the material type and its microstructure. While the general trend for metals and polymers is a decrease in Young's modulus with rising temperature, the rate of decrease and the temperature range over which this occurs can differ significantly between materials. Some advanced materials and composites may exhibit more complex behavior due to their unique properties.
Q 6PhysicsSection B • Numericalelectrostatics
+4 / -1
Two identical charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal lengths. The strings make an angle θ with each other. When suspended in water the angle remains the same. If density of the material of the sphere is 1.5g/cc, the dielectric constant of water will be __________.
(Take density of water =1g/cc )
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 3
Official Correct Answer:3
Step-by-Step Solution:
In air tan2θ=mgF=4πε0r2mgq2
In water tan2θ=mg′F′=4πε0εrr2mgeff q2
Equate both equations
ε0g=ε0εrg[1−1.51]εr=3
Q 7PhysicsSection A • MCQunits and measurements
+4 / -1
The radius (r), length (l) and resistance (R) of a metal wire was measured in the laboratory as
r=(0.35±0.05)cmR=(100±10)ohml=(15±0.2)cm
The percentage error in resistivity of the material of the wire is :
A
37.3%
B
25.6%
C
35.6%
D
39.9%
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To calculate the percentage error in the resistivity of the material of the wire, we need to understand the formula for resistivity. The resistivity ρ of a wire is given by:
ρ=lRA
where:
R is the resistance
A is the cross-sectional area of the wire
l is the length of the wire
The cross-sectional area A of the wire with radius r is:
A=πr2
We can plug this into the equation for resistivity to get:
ρ=lRπr2
Now, to find the percentage error in resistivity, we need to find the percentage errors in R, r, and l and then use the following rule for combining errors:
For a given function, f=f(x,y,z,...), where x,y,z,... are the measured quantities with possible errors, the percentage error in f, denoted as (δf)%, can be approximated by adding the relative percentage errors of the input quantities. If f has the form of a product and quotient of the measured quantities as in our case (ρ=lRπr2), the percentage error in f is given by:
(δf)%=(δx)%+(δy)%+(δz)%+...
Where (δx)%, (δy)%, and (δz)% are the percentage errors in each measured quantity x,y,z,... respectively.
For our case:
The percentage error in radius (δr)% is given by the error in r divided by the average radius and then multiplied by 100:
(δr)%=(0.350.05)×100
The percentage error in resistance (δR)% is:
(δR)%=(10010)×100
The percentage error in length (δl)% is:
(δl)%=(150.2)×100
Now let's calculate each:
(δr)%=(0.350.05)×100≈14.29%
(δR)%=(10010)×100=10%
(δl)%=(150.2)×100≈1.33%
However, since the area A is proportional to r2, the percentage error in A will be twice the percentage error in r. Thus:
(δA)%=2×(δr)%=2×14.29%≈28.58%
Finally, we add the percentage errors to find the percentage error in resistivity:
(δρ)%=(δR)%+(δA)%+(δl)%
(δρ)%=10%+28.58%+1.33%≈39.91%
This calculation gives us a value close to 39.91%, which means the correct option is closest to this value. Thus, the best answer is:
Option D 39.9%
Q 8PhysicsSection A • MCQatoms and nuclei
+4 / -1
The minimum energy required by a hydrogen atom in ground state to emit radiation in Balmer series is nearly :
A
13.6eV
B
1.5eV
C
12.1eV
D
1.9eV
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The energy En of an electron in the nth energy level of a hydrogen atom is given by the formula:
En=−n213.6eV
where:
En is the energy in electron volts (eV),
13.6eV is the ionization energy of hydrogen (the energy required to remove the electron from the ground state, n=1),
n is the principal quantum number (an integer starting from 1).
The Balmer Series
The Balmer series is a specific set of spectral lines of hydrogen that are visible to the naked eye. It results from the electron making transitions between energy levels, specifically from levels with n≥3 (i.e., from higher energy states) down to n=2. These transitions release energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation, which we observe as the Balmer series.
Ground State Energy (E1): The energy of the electron in the ground state (n=1) of hydrogen is:
E1=−1213.6eV=−13.6eV
This represents the electron's energy level when it's closest to the nucleus.
Energy for the n=3 Level (E3): For an electron in the n=3 level, its energy is:
E3=−3213.6eV=−1.51eV
Minimum Energy for Balmer Series Transition: The minimum energy transition within the Balmer series is from n=3 to n=2, but to understand the total energy required for an electron to emit radiation in the Balmer series, starting from the ground state, we consider the energy needed to first excite the electron from n=1 to n=3.
Energy Difference (ΔE): The energy emitted as radiation for the electron to transition from the ground state to a state where it can participate in the Balmer series is the difference between the ground state energy and the energy of the n=3 state:
ΔE=E3−E1=−1.51eV−(−13.6eV)=12.09eV
Note
This calculation shows that the minimum energy required by a hydrogen atom in the ground state to emit radiation in the Balmer series is approximately 12.1 eV. The energy difference essentially represents the energy that must be supplied to an electron to excite it from the ground state (n=1) to an excited state (n=3) from which it can then transition to n=2, emitting radiation observable as part of the Balmer series.
Q 9PhysicsSection A • MCQalternating current
+4 / -1
In series LCR circuit, the capacitance is changed from C to 4C. To keep the resonance frequency unchanged, the new inductance should be:
A
increased by 2L
B
reduced by 41L
C
reduced by 43L
D
increased to 4L
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The resonance frequency f0 of an LCR circuit is given by:
f0=2πLC1
where:
L is the inductance.
C is the capacitance.
To keep the resonance frequency unchanged when the capacitance is changed from C to 4C, we must adjust the inductance L to a new value L′ such that:
2πLC1=2πL′⋅4C1
Now solving for L′:
LC=4CL′
Squaring both sides, we have:
LC=4CL′
Dividing both sides by 4C, we get:
4L=L′
Thus, the new inductance L′ is one fourth of the original inductance L. Therefore, to achieve the same resonance frequency with the capacitance increased to 4C, the inductance should be reduced to a quarter of its initial value:
L′=4L
This means we have reduced the inductance by 43L, so the correct answer is:
Option C: reduced by 43L
Q 10PhysicsSection A • MCQlaws of motion
+4 / -1
Consider a block and trolley system as shown in figure. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the trolley and the surface is 0.04 , the acceleration of the system in ms−2 is :
(Consider that the string is massless and unstretchable and the pulley is also massless and frictionless) :
A
1.2
B
4
C
3
D
2
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
60−fk=(20+6)a60−200×0.04=26a⇒a=2m/s2
Q 11PhysicsSection A • MCQsimple harmonic motion
+4 / -1
A simple pendulum of length 1m has a wooden bob of mass 1kg. It is struck by a bullet of mass 10−2kg moving with a speed of 2×102ms−1. The bullet gets embedded into the bob. The height to which the bob rises before swinging back is. (use g=10m/s2 )
A
0.20m
B
0.40m
C
0.30m
D
0.35m
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The initial momentum of the system (bullet + bob) is the momentum of the bullet because the bob is initially at rest. The momentum of the bullet is given by its mass times its velocity :
pinitial=mbullet×vbullet
After the collision, the bullet and the bob move together with a common velocity. Let's denote this common velocity as v′. The final momentum pfinal is the combined mass of the bullet and bob times the common velocity :
pfinal=(mbullet+mbob)×v′
According to the principle of conservation of linear momentum,
pinitial=pfinal
mbullet×vbullet=(mbullet+mbob)×v′
Plugging in the values :
(10−2 kg)×(2×102 m/s)=(10−2 kg+1 kg)×v′
Solving for v′ :
v′=10−2+110−2×2×102=1.012≈1.98 m/s
After the collision, the system has some kinetic energy which will be completely converted to potential energy at the maximum height h that the bob reaches. Using the principle of conservation of energy :
Kinetic Energy (KE)initial=Potential Energy (PE)final
21(mbullet+mbob)v′2=(mbullet+mbob)gh
Isolating h, we get :
h=(mbullet+mbob)g21(mbullet+mbob)v′2=2gv′2
Substituting the values for v′ and g :
h=2×10(1.98)2=203.9204=0.19602 m
Looking at the given options, the result most closely matches Option A :
0.20 m
Therefore, the height to which the bob rises before swinging back is approximately 0.20 m.
Q 12PhysicsSection A • MCQcapacitor
+4 / -1
Two identical capacitors have same capacitance C. One of them is charged to the potential V and other to the potential 2V. The negative ends of both are connected together. When the positive ends are also joined together, the decrease in energy of the combined system is :
A
41CV2
B
43CV2
C
21CV2
D
2CV2
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To solve the problem, let's start by considering the energy stored in each capacitor before they are connected together.
The energy stored in a capacitor is given by the formula:
E=21CV2
Where E is the energy, C is the capacitance, and V is the potential.
For the first capacitor charged to the potential V, the energy stored is:
E1=21CV2
For the second capacitor charged to the potential 2V, the energy stored is:
E2=21C(2V)2=21C⋅4V2=2CV2
The total initial energy stored in the system is the sum of E1 and E2:
Einitial=E1+E2=21CV2+2CV2=25CV2
When the two capacitors are connected together, their potentials will become equal because they are identical capacitors. Let's denote this final potential as Vf. The total charge before and after the connection remains constant because charge is conserved. Therefore, we can write:
C⋅V+C⋅2V=2C⋅Vf
Simplifying this equation gives us the final potential:
V+2V=2Vf
3V=2Vf
Vf=23V
The final energy stored in the system when the capacitors are connected is now the total energy stored across both capacitors at the final potential Vf:
Efinal=2⋅21CVf2=2⋅21C(23V)2=C⋅49V2
The decrease in energy ΔE of the combined system is the initial energy minus the final energy:
ΔE=Einitial−Efinal
ΔE=25CV2−49CV2
ΔE=410CV2−49CV2
ΔE=41CV2
The correct answer is:
Option A: 41CV2
Q 13PhysicsSection A • MCQunits and measurements
+4 / -1
10 divisions on the main scale of a Vernier calliper coincide with 11 divisions on the Vernier scale. If each division on the main scale is of 5 units, the least count of the instrument is :
A
115
B
1110
C
1150
D
21
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The least count of a Vernier caliper is the smallest measurement that can be obtained with it and is determined by the difference in the measurement of one main scale division and one Vernier scale division.
In this case, 10 divisions on the main scale coincide with 11 divisions on the Vernier scale. This means that 11 divisions on the Vernier scale are equal in length to 10 divisions on the main scale. Since each division on the main scale is 5 units, this is equal to:
10 divisions on main scale×5 units per division=50 units
The length of 10 divisions on the main scale (or 50 units) is therefore equal to the length of 11 divisions on the Vernier scale. This means that:
1 division on the Vernier scale=1150 units
Therefore, the least count of the Vernier caliper, which is the difference between one division on the main scale and one division on the Vernier scale, can be calculated as follows:
Least count=value of one main scale division−value of one Vernier scale division
Least count=5 units−1150 units
Least count=1155 units−1150 units
Least count=115 units
Thus, the least count of the Vernier caliper is
115 units
Therefore, the correct answer is:
Option A: 115
Q 14PhysicsSection A • MCQgravitation
+4 / -1
If R is the radius of the earth and the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is g=π2m/s2, then the length of the second's pendulum at a height h=2R from the surface of earth will be, :
A
91m
B
98m
C
92m
D
94m
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To find the length of the second's pendulum at a height h=2R from the surface of the Earth, we must first understand that the length of a second's pendulum, L, is related to the gravitational acceleration, g, and the period, T, by the formula: T=2πgL Since we are talking about a second's pendulum, the period, T, is 2 seconds (since it takes one second for the pendulum to swing in one direction and another second to swing back), thus T=2 seconds.
Now let's find the gravitational acceleration at height h=2R where R is the radius of the earth. The general formula for gravitational acceleration at a height h above the surface is: gh=(1+Rh)2g Plugging h=2R into the formula, we get:
gh=(1+R2R)2g
gh=(1+2)2g
gh=32g=9g
So the gravitational acceleration at height h is one-ninth of the gravitational acceleration at the surface of the Earth. Given that g=π2 m/s2, we get: gh=9π2 m/s2
Now knowing the gravitational acceleration at height h and with the period T of 2 seconds, we can rearrange the formula for the second's pendulum to solve for the length Lh:
2=2πghLh
1=πghLh
π1=ghLh
Squaring both sides, we get:
π21=ghLh
Multiplying both sides by gh gives us the length Lh:
Lh=π2gh
Substituting gh into the equation yields:
Lh=9π2π2
Lh=91 m
Therefore, the length of the second's pendulum at a height h=2R from the surface of the Earth is 91 meters. The correct answer is Option A.
Q 15PhysicsSection A • MCQdual nature of radiation
+4 / -1
The de Broglie wavelengths of a proton and an α particle are λ and 2λ respectively. The ratio of the velocities of proton and α particle will be :
A
8:1
B
1:2
C
1:8
D
4:1
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To find the ratio of velocities of two particles based on their de Broglie wavelengths, we can use the de Broglie wavelength formula, which relates the momentum of a particle to its wavelength. The de Broglie's wavelength formula is given by:
λ=ph
where:
λ is the de Broglie wavelength,
h is the Planck constant, and
p is the momentum of the particle.
The momentum p of a particle can also be expressed as the product of its mass m and velocity v:
p=mv
So, we can rewrite the de Broglie wavelength equation in terms of mass and velocity:
λ=mvh
For the proton (let's use subscript p for proton), the wavelength is λ:
λp=mpvph
For the α particle (let's use subscript α for alpha), the wavelength is 2λ:
2λ=mαvαh
We are interested in finding the ratio of the velocities vαvp. Using the given data about wavelengths:
λp=λ
λα=2λ
Using the de Broglie equation for both particles:
mpvph=λ
mαvαh=2λ
Dividing the second equation by the first equation gives us:
mpvphmαvαh=λ2λ
mαvαmpvp=12
vαvp=mp2mα
Since we know an α particle consists of 2 protons and 2 neutrons (essentially four nucleons), the mass of an α particle is roughly four times the mass of a proton (mα≈4mp).
Substituting mα with 4mp in the equation:
vαvp=mp2(4mp)
vαvp=2⋅4
vαvp=8
Therefore, the ratio of the velocities of proton to α particle is 8:1, which corresponds to Option A.
Q 16PhysicsSection A • MCQcurrent electricity
+4 / -1
A galvanometer has a resistance of 50Ω and it allows maximum current of 5mA. It can be converted into voltmeter to measure upto 100V by connecting in series a resistor of resistance :
A
19500Ω
B
5975Ω
C
20050Ω
D
19950Ω
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter to measure higher voltages, you need to add a series resistance to it. Let's figure out the required resistance value.
First, let's find the maximum voltage that can be directly measured by the galvanometer without any additional resistance. We know the maximum current, I, that the galvanometer can safely measure is 5 mA, and the resistance of the galvanometer, Rg, is 50Ω.
Using Ohm's law V=I×R, the maximum voltage Vg the galvanometer can measure is:
Vg=I×Rg
Vg=5×10−3 A×50Ω
Vg=0.25 V
Next, to measure up to 100 V, we need to add a series resistor Rs so that the total voltage drop when the maximum current is flowing is 100 V. The voltage drop across the additional resistor Rs when the maximum current flows would be the total voltage minus the voltage across the galvanometer:
Vs=Vtotal−Vg
Vs=100 V−0.25 V
Vs=99.75 V
Applying Ohm's law to the series resistor to find its resistance value:
Rs=IVs
Rs=5×10−3 A99.75 V
Rs=19950Ω
Therefore, the resistance of the series resistor required to convert the galvanometer into a voltmeter that can measure up to 100 V is 19950Ω.
The correct option is D: 19950Ω.
Q 17PhysicsSection A • MCQunits and measurements
+4 / -1
The dimensional formula of angular impulse is :
A
[ML2T−2]
B
[ML−2T−1]
C
[ML2T−1]
D
[MLT−1]
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Angular impulse is given when a torque is applied for a certain amount of time. The angular impulse changes the angular momentum of an object and has the same dimensions as angular momentum.
The dimensional formula for torque τ is the same as that for work, since torque is a kind of rotational work, which is given by force times distance (or in rotational terms, it can be considered as force times lever arm). The dimensional formula for force is [MLT−2], and when multiplied by distance [L], we get:
[Torque]=[MLT−2]×[L]=[ML2T−2]
Now, angular impulse is torque times time, so we multiply the dimension of torque by time [T]:
[AngularImpulse]=[ML2T−2]×[T]=[ML2T−1]
So the correct dimensional formula for angular impulse is given by Option C, which is [ML2T−1].
Q 18PhysicsSection B • Numericalmotion
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A particle is moving in one dimension (along x axis) under the action of a variable force. It's initial position was 16m right of origin. The variation of its position (x) with time (t) is given as x=−3t3+18t2+16t, where x is in m and t is in s.
The velocity of the particle when its acceleration becomes zero is _________ m/s.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 52
Official Correct Answer:52
Step-by-Step Solution:
Position (x): The particle's location on the x-axis at a given time.
Velocity (v): The rate of change of position with respect to time
( v=dtdx ).
Acceleration (a): The rate of change of velocity with respect to time
( a=dtdv ).
The particle's position is given by:
x(t)=−3t3+18t2+16t
We need to find the velocity when the acceleration is zero.
Find the Velocity (v) and Acceleration (a) Functions:
Velocity:
v(t)=dtdx=−9t2+36t+16
Acceleration:
a(t)=dtdv=−18t+36
Find the Time (t) When Acceleration is Zero:
a(t)=0
−18t+36=0
t=2 seconds
Calculate the Velocity at t = 2 seconds:
v(2)=−9(2)2+36(2)+16
v(2)=52 m/s
Answer:
The velocity of the particle when its acceleration becomes zero is 52 m/s.
Q 19PhysicsSection B • Numericalelectromagnetic induction
+4 / -1
A rectangular loop of sides 12cm and 5cm, with its sides parallel to the x-axis and y-axis respectively, moves with a velocity of 5cm/s in the positive x axis direction, in a space containing a variable magnetic field in the positive z direction. The field has a gradient of 10−3T/cm along the negative x direction and it is decreasing with time at the rate of 10−3T/s. If the resistance of the loop is 6mΩ, the power dissipated by the loop as heat is __________ ×10−9W.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 216
In the given circuit if the power rating of Zener diode is 10mW, the value of series resistance Rs to regulate the input unregulated supply is :
A
10kΩ
B
10Ω
C
1kΩ
D
73kΩ<Rs<53kΩ
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Pd across Rs
V1=8−5=3V
Current through the load resistor
I=1×1035=5mA
Maximum current through Zener diode
Izmax.=510=2mA
And minimum current through Zener diode
Iz min. =0∴Is max. =5+2=7mA
And Rs min =Is max V1=73kΩ
Similarly
Ismin.=5mA
And Rs max. =Is min. V1=53kΩ
∴73kΩ<Rs<53kΩ
Q 22PhysicsSection B • Numericalatoms and nuclei
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The radius of a nucleus of mass number 64 is 4.8 fermi. Then the mass number of another nucleus having radius of 4 fermi is x1000, where x is _______.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 27
Official Correct Answer:27
Step-by-Step Solution:
According to the empirical formula relating the radius of a nucleus (R) with its mass number (A), we know that the radius of a nucleus is proportional to the cube root of its mass number. This relationship is given as:
R=R0A1/3
where R0 is a constant with an approximate value of 1.2 fermis.
Given that for a nucleus with a mass number 64 has a radius of 4.8 fermis, we can write:
4.8 fermi=R0×641/3
Now another nucleus has a radius of 4 fermis:
4 fermi=R0×A′1/3
Where A′ is the mass number of the other nucleus.
Let's solve for R0 from the first equation:
R0=641/34.8 fermi
Now we're going to find the mass number A′ using the second equation and substituting R0 from the above:
4 fermi=(641/34.8 fermi)×A′1/3
Now, we want to find A′ in terms of x as given by the equation in the question:
A′=x1000
Substitute A′ in the equation above, we get:
4=(641/34.8)×(x1000)1/3
Let's solve for x:
(4)3=(641/34.8)3×x1000
43×x=(641/34.8)3×1000
x=(43(641/34.8)3×1000)
Now calculate the values:
x=(64(44.8)3×1000)
x=(641.23×1000)
x=(641.728×1000)
x=(641728)
x=27
Therefore, the value of x is 27.
Q 23PhysicsSection B • Numericalcurrent electricity
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The current in a conductor is expressed as I=3t2+4t3, where I is in Ampere and t is in second. The amount of electric charge that flows through a section of the conductor during t=1s to t=2s is __________ C.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 22
Official Correct Answer:22
Step-by-Step Solution:
To find the amount of electric charge that flows through a section of the conductor, we have to integrate the current over the given time interval. The current I(t) as a function of time t is given by:
I=3t2+4t3
The electric charge Q that flows through the conductor from time t=1 s to t=2 s is calculated by integrating the current I(t) with respect to time over this interval:
Q=∫t1t2I(t)dt
Substituting the given limits (t1=1 and t2=2) and the expression for I(t), we get:
Q=∫12(3t2+4t3)dt
Now we'll integrate the function with respect to t:
Q=[33t3+44t4]12
Simplifying the integrated function:
Q=[t3+t4]12
Substitute the upper and lower limits of the integration:
Q=[(2)3+(2)4]−[(1)3+(1)4]Q=[8+16]−[1+1]Q=24−2Q=22 C
Therefore, the amount of electric charge that flows through the section of the conductor from t=1 s to t=2 s is 22 Coulombs.
Q 24PhysicsSection B • Numericalproperties of matter
+4 / -1
A plane is in level flight at constant speed and each of its two wings has an area of 40m2. If the speed of the air is 180km/h over the lower wing surface and 252km/h over the upper wing surface, the mass of the plane is ___________ kg.
(Take air density to be 1kgm−3 and g=10ms−2 )
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 9600
Official Correct Answer:9600
Step-by-Step Solution:
To solve this problem, we need to employ Bernoulli's equation, which is applied to describe the behavior of fluid flow. For a fluid in steady flow, the principle states that the sum of the pressure potential energy density, kinetic energy density, and the gravitational potential energy density has the same value at all points along a streamline. Since the plane is in level flight, we can ignore changes in gravitational potential energy. Bernoulli's equation can be written as:
P1+21ρv12=P2+21ρv22,
where,
P1 and P2 are the static pressures on the lower and upper surfaces of the wing respectively,
v1 is the airspeed over the lower surface of the wing,
v2 is the airspeed over the upper surface of the wing,
ρ is the density of air,
P2>P1 because v2>v1.
First, let's convert the airspeeds to m/s:
v1=180hkm×3600s1000m=50m/s,
v2=252hkm×3600s1000m=70m/s.
The pressure difference between the lower and upper wing surfaces can thus be calculated using Bernoulli's equation:
ΔP=P1−P2=21ρv22−21ρv12.
Substitute the values (with ρ=1kg/m3):
ΔP=21(1kg/m3)(70m/s)2−21(1kg/m3)(50m/s)2,
ΔP=21(4900kg/m⋅s2)−21(2500kg/m⋅s2),
ΔP=21(2400kg/m⋅s2),
ΔP=1200N/m2.
The lift force generated by the pressure difference over one wing is ΔP×wing area, and since there are two wings, we must double the lift force generated by one wing to find the total lift force sustaining the plane. The weight of the plane is effectively the lift force when in level flight at constant speed. So:
Lift=2×ΔP×wing area,
Lift=2×1200N/m2×40m2,
Lift=2×48000N,
Lift=96000N.
To find the mass m of the plane, we use Newton's second law, where lift force is equal to the weight (mg, where g is the acceleration due to gravity):
mg=Lift,
m=gLift,
m=10m/s296000N,
m=9600kg.
Therefore, the mass of the plane is 9600 kg.
Q 25PhysicsSection A • MCQwave optics
+4 / -1
A monochromatic light of wavelength 6000A˚ is incident on the single slit of width 0.01mm. If the diffraction pattern is formed at the focus of the convex lens of focal length 20cm, the linear width of the central maximum is :
A
12mm
B
24mm
C
60mm
D
120mm
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To find the linear width of the central maximum in a single-slit diffraction pattern, we can use the formula that relates the position of the first minima on either side of the central maximum. The angle, θ, at which the first minimum occurs is given by:
asin(θ)=mλ
Where:
a is the width of the slit
λ is the wavelength of monochromatic light
m is the order number of the minimum (for the first minimum, m=±1)
In our case, we want to find the position of the first minima to determine the width of the central maximum on the screen. So we will use m=1 and m=−1 which correspond to the first minima on either side of the central peak.
Given the width of the slit a=0.01 mm, which we need to convert to meters for consistency with the wavelength:
a=0.01×10−3m
And the wavelength λ=6000A˚, also converting to meters:
λ=6000×10−10m
We're using a convex lens of focal length f=20 cm to project the pattern onto a screen. We'll need to convert the focal length to meters as well:
f=20×10−2m
We can calculate the angle θ needed for the first minima using the approximation of small angles, where sin(θ)≈θ:
aθ=mλ
Now, solve for θ for the first minimum (m = 1):
θ=aλ
Plugging in the values:
θ=0.01×10−36000×10−10
θ=10−56000×10−10
θ=6000×10−5
Now, linear width of the central maximum on the screen (from -m to m, or -1 to +1) will be twice the distance from the center to the first minimum, which can be found using the focal length of the lens f and the angle θ:
y=2fθ
Plugging the focal length and calculated theta:
y=2×20×10−2×6000×10−5
y=40×10−2×6000×10−5
y=240×10−3m
y=24×10−2m
y=24mm
This means the linear width of the central maximum is 24 mm. Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q 26PhysicsSection B • Numericalwaves
+4 / -1
A tuning fork resonates with a sonometer wire of length 1m stretched with a tension of 6N. When the tension in the wire is changed to 54N, the same tuning fork produces 12 beats per second with it. The frequency of the tuning fork is ________________ Hz.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 6
Official Correct Answer:6
Step-by-Step Solution:
To solve this problem, we'll have to use the relationship between the frequency of a vibrating string and the tension applied to it. When a tuning fork resonates with a sonometer wire, their frequencies are equal.
The frequency of a vibrating string is given by the formula:
f=2L1μT
Where:
f is the frequency of the vibration
L is the length of the wire
T is the tension in the wire
μ is the linear mass density of the wire
The linear mass density (μ) of the wire remains constant.
Initially, when the string resonates with the tuning fork, the frequency of both is given by:
f1=2L1μT1
Here T1=6N and L=1m, so we have:
f1=2⋅11μ6=21μ6
Now, when the tension is changed to T2=54N, the frequency of the wire changes to f2 and it is given by:
f2=2L1μT2
Since L and μ remain the same, substituting T2:
f2=2⋅11μ54=21μ54
Notice that 54=6×9, therefore:
f2=21μ6×9=219μ6=23μ6=3f1
When the tension was increased, the frequency became thrice the original frequency.
Since the second instance of the string produces 12 beats per second this means that the frequency of the tuning fork (and original string) and the new frequency (of the string with higher tension) differ by 12 Hz. If fF is the frequency of the tuning fork, then:
Either f2=fF+12 Hz or f2=fF−12 Hz.
Since we have determined f2=3f1 and f1=fF, we can state:
Either 3fF=fF+12 or 3fF=fF−12.
If 3fF=fF−12, then :
3fF−fF=−12
2fF=−12
This result is not possible since frequency cannot be negative.
So, we must consider the correct equation which is:
f2=fF+12
Now, substituting f2=3fF:
3fF=fF+12
2fF=12
fF=6 Hz
Thus, the frequency of the tuning fork is 6 Hz.
Q 27PhysicsSection B • Numericalray optics
+4 / -1
The distance between object and its 3 times magnified virtual image as produced by a convex lens is 20cm. The focal length of the lens used is __________ cm.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 15
Official Correct Answer:15
Step-by-Step Solution:
v=3uv−u=20cm2u=20cmu=10cm
(−30)1−(−10)1=f1f=15cm
Q 28PhysicsSection A • MCQheat and thermodynamics
+4 / -1
Two moles a monoatomic gas is mixed with six moles of a diatomic gas. The molar specific heat of the mixture at constant volume is :
A
23R
B
47R
C
25R
D
49R
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To calculate the molar specific heat at constant volume of a gas mixture, we can use a weighted average based on the molar specific heats of the individual gases and their respective amounts (moles).
Let's call CV,m the molar specific heat at constant volume of the mixture, n1 the number of moles of the monoatomic gas, n2 the number of moles of the diatomic gas, CV,m1 the molar specific heat at constant volume of the monoatomic gas, and CV,m2 the molar specific heat at constant volume of the diatomic gas.
For a monoatomic ideal gas, the molar specific heat at constant volume is:
CV,m1=23R
For a diatomic ideal gas, if we assume the gas is rigid and does not exhibit vibrational modes, the molar specific heat at constant volume is:
CV,m2=25R
The weighted average of the molar specific heat for the mixture is:
CV,m=n1+n2(n1⋅CV,m1+n2⋅CV,m2)
Putting the values into the equation, we get:
CV,m=2+6(2⋅23R+6⋅25R)
CV,m=8(3R+15R)
CV,m=818R
CV,m=49R
Therefore, the molar specific heat of the mixture at constant volume is 49R. The correct answer is:
Option D
49R
Q 29PhysicsSection A • MCQcircular motion
+4 / -1
A particle moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed takes time T to complete one revolution.
If this particle is projected with the same speed at an angle θ to the horizontal, the maximum height attained by it is equal to 4R. The angle of projection θ is then given by :
A
sin−1[π2R2gT2]21
B
sin−1[2gT2π2R]21
C
cos−1[2gT2πR]21
D
cos−1[π2R2gT2]21
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To solve for the angle of projection θ, we will first establish the relationship between the variables given and then derive the formula using kinematics.
The time T for one revolution at speed v in a circle of radius R is related to the circumference of the circle by the formula:
v=T2πR
When the particle is projected with the same speed v at an angle θ to the horizontal, its vertical component of velocity is given by vy=vsinθ.
The maximum height H reached by the projectile can be found from the kinematic equation:
H=2gvy2=2g(vsinθ)2
We are given that the maximum height attained H is equal to 4R, so:
4R=2g(vsinθ)2
Substitute v from the first equation into the second one:
4R=2g((T2πR)sinθ)2
4R=2gT2(2πRsinθ)2
4R=2gT24π2R2sin2θ
2gT2=π2Rsin2θ
Now solve for sinθ:
sinθ=[π2R2gT2]1/2
Finally, to solve for θ, take the inverse sine of both sides:
θ=sin−1([π2R2gT2]1/2)
Therefore, the correct answer is:
Option A
sin−1[π2R2gT2]1/2
Q 30PhysicsSection A • MCQcurrent electricity
+4 / -1
The reading in the ideal voltmeter (V) shown in the given circuit diagram is :
A
3V
B
10V
C
5V
D
0V
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
i=reqEeq =8×0.28×5I=25AV=E−ir=5−0.2×25=0
Q 31ChemistrySection A • MCQcoordination compounds
+4 / -1
Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : A solution of [Ni(H2O)6]2+ is green in colour.
Statement (II) : A solution of [Ni(CN)4]2− is colourless.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
C
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
D
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
In order to determine the correctness of the given statements, we need to analyze the nature of the mentioned complexes.
Statement (I) asserts that a solution of [Ni(H2O)6]2+ is green in color. This complex involves a nickel(II) cation coordinated with six water molecules. Nickel(II) has the electronic configuration [Ar]3d8. In an octahedral field created by water ligands, the d-orbitals split into two sets, t2g and eg, due to crystal field splitting. The presence of unpaired electrons allows for d-d transitions when light is absorbed, which is responsible for the characteristic color of the complex. Since typical [Ni(H2O)6]2+ complexes are indeed green in color due to such transitions, Statement (I) is correct.
Statement (II) states that a solution of [Ni(CN)4]2− is colorless. In this complex, nickel(II) is surrounded by four cyanide ligands. Cyanide is a strong field ligand, which leads to a large crystal field splitting that exceeds the pairing energy of the electrons. Hence, all the electrons in the nickel(II) ion are paired, and there are no unpaired electrons available for d-d transitions. As there are no d-d transitions to absorb light in the visible region, the complex appears colorless. Therefore, Statement (II) is also correct.
Given that both statements are correct, the most appropriate answer would be :
Option B : Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Q 32ChemistrySection A • MCQcoordination compounds
+4 / -1
Which of the following complex is homoleptic?
A
[Ni(NH3)2Cl2]
B
[Co(NH3)4Cl2]+
C
[Fe(NH3)4Cl2]+
D
[Ni(CN)4]2−
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
A homoleptic complex is one in which a central metal atom or ion is surrounded by only one kind of donor groups, ligands or ions. On the other hand, a heteroleptic complex contains a central metal surrounded by more than one kind of donor groups, ligands or ions.
Let's examine the given options :
Option A: [Ni(NH3)2Cl2]
This complex contains two different ligands, ammonia (NH3) and chloride (Cl). Therefore, it is a heteroleptic complex.
Option B: [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+
Just like Option A, this complex has two types of ligands, ammonia (NH3) and chloride (Cl), making it a heteroleptic complex.
Option C: [Fe(NH3)4Cl2]+
Again, this complex has ammonia (NH3) and chloride (Cl) ligands, so it is a heteroleptic complex.
Option D: [Ni(CN)4]2−
This complex has only cyanide (CN) ligands surrounding the nickel ion, with no other types of ligands present. Thus, this is a homoleptic complex because it is coordinated by a single type of ligand.
Therefore, Option D is the correct answer as it represents a homoleptic complex.
Q 33ChemistrySection A • MCQchemical bonding and molecular structure
+4 / -1
Arrange the bonds in order of increasing ionic character in the molecules. LiF, K2O,N2,SO2 and ClF3 :
A
N2<SO2<ClF3<K2O<LiF
B
ClF3<N2<SO2<K2O<LiF
C
LiF<K2O<ClF3<SO2<N2
D
N2<ClF3<SO2<K2O<LiF
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To determine the order of increasing ionic character in the bonds of the given molecules, we should consider the concept of electronegativity, which is a measure of the tendency of an atom to attract a bonding pair of electrons. The larger the difference in electronegativity between two atoms, the more ionic the bond is. Covalent bonds, on the other hand, have smaller differences in electronegativity.
We can qualitatively assess the ionic character of the bonds in each molecule as follows :
- N2 : Both nitrogen atoms have the same electronegativity since it is a diatomic molecule of the same element, therefore the bond is purely covalent with no ionic character.
- SO2 : Sulfur and oxygen have different electronegativities, with oxygen being more electronegative than sulfur, but not as drastically different as in ionic compounds. Therefore, the bond has some ionic character but is primarily covalent.
- ClF3 : Chlorine and fluorine have different electronegativities, with fluorine being more electronegative. However, the difference is not as large as between metals and nonmetals, so while this bond has ionic character, it is not as ionic as a bond between a metal and a nonmetal.
- K2O : Potassium is a metal with low electronegativity, and oxygen is a nonmetal with high electronegativity. Therefore, bonds between potassium and oxygen will have a high degree of ionic character.
- LiF : Lithium is a metal with low electronegativity, and fluorine is a nonmetal with very high electronegativity. The difference in electronegativity is very large, indicating a very high ionic character, even more so than in K2O because fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen.
Given these considerations, the correct order from least to most ionic character is as follows :
N2<SO2<ClF3<K2O<LiF
Therefore, the correct option is :
Option A : N2<SO2<ClF3<K2O<LiF
Q 34ChemistrySection A • MCQatomic structure
+4 / -1
In case of isoelectronic species the size of F−,Ne and Na+is affected by :
A
Nuclear charge (z)
B
None of the factors because their size is the same
C
Electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals
D
Principal quantum number (n)
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Option A: Nuclear charge (z) is the correct answer.
Isoelectronic species are atoms and ions that have the same number of electrons. When comparing the sizes of isoelectronic species, the major factor that affects their size is the nuclear charge (z), which is the charge of the nucleus or the number of protons in the nucleus. Here’s why:
The more protons there are in the nucleus (higher nuclear charge), the more positively charged the nucleus is, and thus the stronger it can attract the electrons towards it. This results in a smaller radius for the species. Conversely, if there are fewer protons in the nucleus, the attraction to the electrons is weaker, leading to a larger radius. Let's compare the species given:
F− (fluoride ion) has 9 protons in the nucleus and 10 electrons.
Ne (neon atom) has 10 protons in the nucleus and 10 electrons.
Na+ (sodium ion) has 11 protons in the nucleus and 10 electrons.
Despite having the same number of electrons, the Na+ ion will be the smallest among the three due to the higher nuclear charge of 11 protons, which attracts the same number of electrons more strongly than Ne with 10 protons and F− with 9 protons. Hence, Na+ has a lower atomic radius compared to Ne, which in turn is smaller than F−.
Considering Option B (size being the same), Option C (electron-electron interaction), and Option D (principal quantum number), none of these factors are as significant as the difference in nuclear charge for isoelectronic species.
The principal quantum number (n) is the same for all these isoelectronic species since they all have their outer electrons in the second energy level (n=2) in the ground state. Electron-electron interactions do contribute to energy levels and could affect the size slightly, but the primary and determining factor for isoelectronic species remains the nuclear charge, as it directly influences the effective nuclear charge felt by the electrons. Therefore, Option A is the best answer.
Q 35ChemistrySection B • Numericalchemical bonding and molecular structure
+4 / -1
The lowest oxidation number of an atom in a compound A2B is -2 . The number of electrons in its valence shell is _______.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 6
Official Correct Answer:6
Step-by-Step Solution:
A2B→2A++B−2
When an atom has the lowest oxidation number of -2 in a compound, it means the atom has gained two electrons beyond its neutral state to achieve this oxidation state. This is because gaining electrons makes the oxidation number more negative. In a neutral atom, the electrons in the outermost shell are known as valence electrons, which play a crucial role in chemical reactions and bonding.
In the given compound A2B, atom B has an oxidation state of -2, indicating it has gained two electrons. For an atom to gain two electrons to complete its octet implies that its neutral state had six valence electrons. Therefore, before gaining electrons, the atom B would have had six electrons in its valence shell to begin with. As it gains two more electrons, it reaches an oxidation number of -2, implying it now has a complete octet or eight electrons in its valence shell, but the original count of valence electrons in its neutral state was six.
Q 36ChemistrySection B • Numericalionic equilibrium
+4 / -1
Ka for CH3COOH is 1.8×10−5 and Kb for NH4OH is 1.8×10−5. The pH of ammonium acetate solution will be _________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 7
Official Correct Answer:7
Step-by-Step Solution:
To find the pH of an ammonium acetate solution, we use the fact that ammonium acetate is a salt resulting from the neutralization of a weak acid (acetic acid, CH3COOH) by a weak base (ammonium hydroxide, NH4OH). The respective ionization constant values for the weak acid Ka and the weak base Kb are given as 1.8×10−5.
Firstly, calculate the pKa and pKb values.
pKa=−log(Ka)=−log(1.8×10−5)
pKb=−log(Kb)=−log(1.8×10−5)
Given that the values of Ka and Kb are the same, their pKa and pKb values will also be the same, establishing a neutral condition where the effects of the acid and base neutralize each other.
The formula used to determine the pH of a solution of such a salt is:
pH=21(pKw+pKa−pKb)
Where pKw is the ionic product of water, which is 14 at 25°C. In this specific case, since pKa=pKb, the formula simplifies to:
pH=21(14+pKa−pKa)
pH=21(14)
pH=7
The pH of an ammonium acetate solution in this scenario is 7, indicating a neutral solution.
Q 37ChemistrySection A • MCQcompounds containing nitrogen
+4 / -1
Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : Aminobenzene and aniline are same organic compounds.
Statement (II) : Aminobenzene and aniline are different organic compounds.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
B
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
D
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Statement (I) says that aminobenzene and aniline are the same organic compounds. Statement (II) says that aminobenzene and aniline are different organic compounds. To evaluate these statements, let's examine what each name refers to.
Aminobenzene and aniline both refer to the same compound, which has the chemical formula C6H5NH2. This molecule consists of a benzene ring with an amino group (NH2) attached to it. Aminobenzene is a name that describes the structure based on its functional groups - an amino group attached to a benzene ring. Aniline is the common name for this compound and is recognized by IUPAC as an acceptable name.
Given this information:
Statement I is correct because aminobenzene and aniline refer to the same compound, that is, C6H5NH2.
Statement II is incorrect because it states that aminobenzene and aniline are different organic compounds, which is not true.
Therefore, the most appropriate answer from the given options is:
Option C
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Q 38ChemistrySection A • MCQredox reactions
+4 / -1
In acidic medium, K2Cr2O7 shows oxidising action as represented in the half reaction:
Cr2O72−+XH++Ye⊖→2A+ZH2O
X,Y,Z and A are respectively are :
A
14,7,6 and Cr3+
B
14,6,7 and Cr3+
C
8,4,6 and Cr2O3
D
8,6,4 and Cr2O3
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Balancing the Half-Reaction
Chromium (Cr) : Already balanced with 2 Cr on each side.
Oxygen (O): Add 7 H₂O to the right:
Cr2O72−+XH++Ye⊖→2A+7H2O
Hydrogen (H) : Add 14 H⁺ to the left:
Cr2O72−+14H++Ye⊖→2A+7H2O
Charge : Add 6e⁻ to the left:
Cr2O72−+14H++6e⊖→2A+7H2O
Identifying A :
The reduction of Cr₂O₇²⁻ in acidic medium forms Cr³⁺ ions.
Final Balanced Equation :
Cr2O72−+14H++6e⊖→2Cr3++7H2O
Answer
X = 14
Y = 6
Z = 7
A = Cr³⁺
Q 39ChemistrySection A • MCQbasics of organic chemistry
+4 / -1
Ionic reactions with organic compounds proceed through :
(A) homolytic bond cleavage
(B) heterolytic bond cleavage
(C) free radical formation
(D) primary free radical
(E) secondary free radical
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(A) only
B
(B) only
C
(C) only
D
(D) and (E) only
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The correct answer is Option B: (B) only.
In organic chemistry, ionic reactions typically involve heterolytic bond cleavage. This is when a bond between two atoms breaks and both electrons of the shared pair go to one of the atoms, creating ions. One atom becomes a positively charged ion (cation), as it loses an electron, and the other becomes a negatively charged ion (anion), as it gains an electron.
In contrast, homolytic bond cleavage occurs when each atom gets one electron from the shared pair, leading to the formation of two free radicals, which are highly reactive species with unpaired electrons. However, this is not typically how ionic reactions proceed in organic compounds.
The options (C), (D), and (E) mention free radicals. Since homolytic cleavage leads to free radicals, and we've established that ionic reactions in organic chemistry generally proceed through heterolytic cleavage, free radicals are not typically involved in these reactions. Therefore, these options are not correct in the context of ionic reactions with organic compounds.
Thus, the process of heterolytic bond cleavage (B) is the mechanism through which ionic reactions usually occur in organic chemistry.
Q 40ChemistrySection B • Numericalp block elements
+4 / -1
The number of white coloured salts, among the following is
(a) SrSO4
(b) Mg(NH4)PO4
(c) BaCrO4
(d) Mn(OH)2
(e) PbSO4
(f) PbCrO4
(g) AgBr
(h) PbI2
(i) CaC2O4
(j) [Fe(OH)2(CH3COO)]
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 5
Official Correct Answer:5
Step-by-Step Solution:
To determine the number of white coloured salts among the listed compounds, we look at their common color characteristics:
(a) SrSO4 - Generally, most sulfate salts are white unless the cation imparts a color. Strontium sulfate is indeed white.
(b) Mg(NH4)PO4 - Magnesium ammonium phosphate is also known to be white. This is typical for many phosphates with colorless cations.
(c) BaCrO4 - Barium chromate is well-known for its yellow color, a characteristic of many chromates.
(d) Mn(OH)2 - Manganese hydroxide can have a faint pink to white color, but in this context, we consider it white for counting purposes.
(e) PbSO4 - Lead sulfate is white, consistent with many lead salts not influenced by strong coloring anions.
(f) PbCrO4 - Lead chromate is distinguished by its yellow color, again a feature of chromate salts.
(g) AgBr - Silver bromide is known for its pale yellow to virtually white appearance, but it is more accurately described as pale yellow.
(h) PbI2 - Lead iodide exhibits a bright yellow color, typical for many iodides with heavy metal cations.
(i) CaC2O4 - Calcium oxalate is white, as most insoluble oxalates are.
(j) [Fe(OH)2(CH3COO)] - This complex containing iron is brown red due to the presence of iron ions.
Summarizing, the white salts among the given compounds are SrSO4, Mg(NH4)PO4, Mn(OH)2, PbSO4, and CaC2O4, making a total of 5 white colored salts.
Q 41ChemistrySection B • Numericalbasics of organic chemistry
+4 / -1
Total number of deactivating groups in aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction among the following is _______ .
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 2
Official Correct Answer:2
Step-by-Step Solution:
Q 42ChemistrySection A • MCQbiomolecules
+4 / -1
If one strand of a DNA has the sequence ATGCTTCA, sequence of the bases in complementary strand is :
A
CATTAGCT
B
TACGAAGT
C
ATGCGACT
D
GTACTTAC
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
DNA is made up of two strands that are complementary to each other. The base pairing rules state that adenine (A) pairs with thymine (T), and cytosine (C) pairs with guanine (G). Using these rules, we can determine the sequence of the complementary strand of the given DNA sequence ATGCTTCA.
Here's the pairing for the given sequence:
A (adenine) pairs with T (thymine)
T (thymine) pairs with A (adenine)
G (guanine) pairs with C (cytosine)
C (cytosine) pairs with G (guanine)
T (thymine) pairs with A (adenine)
T (thymine) pairs with A (adenine)
C (cytosine) pairs with G (guanine)
A (adenine) pairs with T (thymine)
So, the complementary base sequence to the given DNA strand ATGCTTCA would be:
1. A pairs with T
2. T pairs with A
3. G pairs with C
4. C pairs with G
5. T pairs with A
6. T pairs with A
7. C pairs with G
8. A pairs with T
Putting it all together, the complementary sequence is: TACGAAGT. Therefore, the correct answer is:
Option B - TACGAAGT
Q 43ChemistrySection A • MCQchemical bonding and molecular structure
+4 / -1
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): PH3 has lower boiling point than NH3.
Reason (R) : In liquid state NH3 molecules are associated through vander Waal's forces, but PH3 molecules are associated through hydrogen bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
C
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
D
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The correct answer is Option C: (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
Assertion (A): PH3 has lower boiling point than NH3.
This assertion is true. The boiling point of ammonia (NH3) is higher than that of phosphine (PH3). Ammonia has a boiling point of about -33.34°C, whereas phosphine has a boiling point of about -87.7°C. The reason for the higher boiling point of ammonia as compared to phosphine lies in the strength and type of intermolecular forces present in the substances.
Reason (R) : In liquid state NH3 molecules are associated through Vander Waals' forces, but PH3 molecules are associated through hydrogen bonding.
This reason is incorrect. Ammonia (NH3) can form hydrogen bonds due to the presence of a highly electronegative nitrogen atom bonded to hydrogen atoms. This allows NH3 molecules to strongly associate with each other through hydrogen bonding, which is a much stronger intermolecular force than Van der Waals forces. This hydrogen bonding is responsible for the relatively high boiling point of ammonia.
On the other hand, phosphine (PH3) does not form hydrogen bonds because the electronegativity difference between phosphorus and hydrogen is not significant enough to enable the formation of hydrogen bonds. Instead, phosphine molecules are associated mainly through weaker Van der Waals forces, leading to a lower boiling point when compared to ammonia.
In conclusion, the assertion that PH3 has a lower boiling point than NH3 is correct, due to the hydrogen bonding present in NH3 and absent in PH3. However, the reason provided is incorrect because it incorrectly states that PH3 forms hydrogen bonds and that NH3 is associated through Van der Waals forces. It is actually the other way around, so the correct answer is that (A) is true but (R) is false.
Q 44ChemistrySection A • MCQhaloalkanes and haloarenes
+4 / -1
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Haloalkanes react with KCN to form alkyl cyanides as a main product while with AgCN form isocyanide as the main product.
Reason (R) : KCN and AgCN both are highly ionic compounds.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
B
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
D
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
R−X+KCN⟶R−CN+KXR−X+AgCN⟶R−NC+AgX
KCN is ionic so it provides cyanide ions in solution and attacks from carbon side on alkyl halide.
But AgCN is covalent it cannot form cyanide ion so it attacks from nitrogen side and isocyanide is formed predominantly.
A is correct R is not correct.
Q 45ChemistrySection A • MCQatomic structure
+4 / -1
According to the wave-particle duality of matter by de-Broglie, which of the following graph plot presents most appropriate relationship between wavelength of electron (λ) and momentum of electron (p)?
A
B
C
D
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
λ=phλ∝p1
So, graph between λ and p is rectangular hyperbola.
Q 46ChemistrySection B • Numericalp block elements
+4 / -1
Among the following oxides of p-block elements, number of oxides having amphoteric nature is ________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 3
Official Correct Answer:3
Step-by-Step Solution:
An amphoteric oxide is one that displays both acidic and basic properties; such substances react with both acids and bases. In the p-block, several elements can form amphoteric oxides, particularly those elements that are metallic or metalloid in nature. It's essential to recognize which oxides among the provided list have an amphoteric character:
Cl2O7 - This is dichlorine heptoxide, an oxide of chlorine, and shows acidic properties. It is not amphoteric.
CO - Carbon monoxide does not behave as an acidic or basic oxide; it is mainly a neutral oxide.
PbO2 - Lead(IV) oxide, also known as plumbic oxide. This oxide of lead is amphoteric, but it is much less common and less amphoteric than lead(II) oxide, PbO.
N2O - Nitrous oxide is a neutral oxide; it does not exhibit acidic or basic properties.
NO - Nitric oxide, like N2O, is a neutral oxide.
Al2O3 - Aluminium oxide is well known for being amphoteric. It reacts with both acids and bases to produce salts and water.
SiO2 - Silicon dioxide is generally acidic. Although it does not react with water to form an acidic solution, it will react with basic oxides. Therefore, it is typically not considered amphoteric.
N2O5 - Dinitrogen pentoxide is an acidic oxide; it is the anhydride of nitric acid.
SnO2 - Tin dioxide, also known as stannic oxide. This oxide of tin is amphoteric, reacting with both acids and bases.
From the list, the amphoteric oxides are:
PbO2 - Lead(IV) oxide (less commonly amphoteric compared to PbO)
Al2O3 - Aluminium oxide
SnO2 - Tin dioxide
So, the number of amphoteric oxides in the list provided is 3.
Q 47ChemistrySection A • MCQsolutions
+4 / -1
We have three aqueous solutions of NaCl labelled as ' A ', ' B ' and ' C ' with concentration 0.1M, 0.01M and 0.001M, respectively. The value of van 't Hoff factor(i) for these solutions will be in the order :
A
iA<iC<iB
B
iA<iB<iC
C
iA>iB>iC
D
iA=iB=iC
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Salt
Values of i (for different conc. of a Salt)
NaCl
0.1 M
0.01 M
0.001 M
1.87
1.94
1.94
The van 't Hoff factor (i) is used to describe the number of particles a solute formula unit produces in a solution. For an electrolyte like NaCl, which dissociates completely in very dilute solutions, the theoretical value of i is approximately 2, since NaCl dissociates into Na+ and Cl− ions.
In real scenarios, as the concentration of the solution decreases (making the solution more dilute), the interaction between the ions decreases, allowing more complete dissociation. Therefore, for practical purposes, the van 't Hoff factor i approaches its theoretical maximum value as concentration decreases. Thus, for NaCl solutions of concentrations 0.1M, 0.01M, and 0.001M, the fact that NaCl dissociates more completely in more dilute solutions implies that i increases with decreasing concentration.
Hence, the order of i based on the concentration would be iA<iB<iC, as concentration 0.1M>0.01M>0.001M, respectively. Thus, option B correctly describes the order of the van 't Hoff factors for these solutions.
Q 48ChemistrySection A • MCQbasics of organic chemistry
+4 / -1
Which of the following compound will most easily be attacked by an electrophile?
A
B
C
D
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Phenol is most easily attacked by an electrophile because of presence of −OH group which increases electron density at ortho and para position mainly.
Here, chlorine atom shows +R effect o-, p-directive. But deactivate benzene ring.
−OH and −CH3 are activating and ortho para directing groups.
−OH activates more than −CH3.
Q 49ChemistrySection A • MCQpractical organic chemistry
+4 / -1
Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : Potassium hydrogen phthalate is a primary standard for standardisation of sodium hydroxide solution.
Statement (II) : In this titration phenolphthalein can be used as indicator.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
B
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
D
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let's examine each statement one by one to choose the most appropriate answer :
Statement (I) : Potassium hydrogen phthalate is a primary standard for standardisation of sodium hydroxide solution.
This statement is correct. Potassium hydrogen phthalate (often abbreviated as KHP, with the chemical formula C8H5KO4) is commonly used as a primary standard in titrations because it is pure, stable, non-hygroscopic, and has a high molar mass. It reacts with sodium hydroxide (NaOH) in a stoichiometric reaction, where one mole of KHP reacts with one mole of NaOH. The equation for the reaction is as follows :
C8H5KO4+NaOH→C8H4KO4Na+H2O
Statement (II) : In this titration phenolphthalein can be used as indicator.
This statement is also correct. Phenolphthalein is a suitable indicator for the titration between KHP and NaOH. It changes color in the pH range of about 8.2 to 10, which is appropriate for the endpoint of a titration involving a weak acid (KHP) and a strong base (NaOH). In an acidic solution, phenolphthalein is colorless, but it turns pink in a basic solution, signaling the end of the titration when slight excess NaOH is present.
Given that both statements are correct, the most appropriate answer is :
Option A : Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Q 50ChemistrySection A • MCQredox reactions
+4 / -1
Which of the following reactions are disproportionation reactions?
(A) Cu+→Cu2++Cu
(B) 3MnO42−+4H+⟶2<br><br>MnO4−+MnO2+2H2O
(C) 2KMnO4⟶K2MnO4+MnO2+O2
(D) 2MnO4−+3Mn2++2H2O⟶5MnO2+4H+
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(A), (B)
B
(A), (D)
C
(B), (C), (D)
D
(A), (B), (C)
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
A disproportionation reaction is a chemical reaction in which a single substance is simultaneously reduced and oxidized, forming two different products. To identify disproportionation reactions, one should look for a specified element in the reactant that gains electrons (reduction) and for the same element that lose electrons (oxidation).
Here's an analysis of each reaction :
(A) Cu+→Cu2++Cu
Here, copper (Cu) is in the +1 oxidation state and forms two products, where it is oxidized to the +2 state in Cu2+ and reduced to the 0 state in Cu. This is a classic example of disproportionation. So, (A) is true for disproportionation.
(B) 3MnO42−+4H+⟶2MnO4−+MnO2+2H2O
In this reaction, MnO42− (where Mn is in +6 oxidation state) is converted into MnO4− (where Mn is in +7 oxidation state, oxidation has occurred) and MnO2 (where Mn is in +4 oxidation state, reduction has occurred). Here, again, we have the same element, manganese (Mn), undergoing both reduction and oxidation. Hence, (B) is also a disproportionation reaction.
(C) 2KMnO4⟶K2MnO4+MnO2+O2
For the reaction with potassium permanganate, KMnO4, manganese starts in the +7 oxidation state. It forms K2MnO4 where Mn is in +6 state (reduction) and MnO2 where Mn is in +4 state (further reduction), but no increase in oxidation state of manganese is observed. Instead, oxygen is released, so the manganese is not being oxidized in any of its products; it is only reduced twice. This is not a disproportionation reaction because the same element should be undergoing both oxidation and reduction, which is not the case here. Hence, (C) is not a disproportionation reaction.
(D) 2MnO4−+3Mn2++2H2O⟶5MnO2+4H+
In this reaction, the MnO4− ion (where Mn is at +7 oxidation state) and Mn2+ ion (where Mn is at +2 oxidation state) react to form MnO2 (where Mn is at +4 oxidation state). This reaction is not a case of disproportionation; it is a comproportionation or synproportionation reaction, where two species with the same element in different oxidation states produce a product with the element at an intermediate oxidation state.
Therefore, the disproportionation reactions among the given choices are:
(A) Cu+→Cu2++Cu
(B) 3MnO42−+4H+⟶2MnO4−+MnO2+2H2O
Option A would be the correct choice: (A), (B).
Q 51ChemistrySection B • Numericalbasics of organic chemistry
+4 / -1
Number of optical isomers possible for 2-chlorobutane ________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 2
Official Correct Answer:2
Step-by-Step Solution:
There is one chiral centre present in given compound.
So, Total optical isomers =2
Q 52ChemistrySection B • Numericalsome basic concepts of chemistry
+4 / -1
Consider the following reaction :
3PbCl2+2(NH4)3PO4→Pb3(PO4)2+6NH4Cl
If 72mmol of PbCl2 is mixed with 50mmol of (NH4)3PO4, then the amount of Pb3(PO4)2 formed is ________ mmol (nearest integer).
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 24
Official Correct Answer:24
Step-by-Step Solution:
To solve this problem, we will use the stoichiometry of the balanced chemical reaction. The balanced equation shows that 3 moles of PbCl2 react with 2 moles of (NH4)3PO4 to produce 1 mole of Pb3(PO4)2.
The reaction is:
3PbCl2+2(NH4)3PO4→Pb3(PO4)2+6NH4Cl
The molar ratio of PbCl2 to Pb3(PO4)2 is 3:1, and the molar ratio of (NH4)3PO4 to Pb3(PO4)2 is 2:1. We need to determine which reactant is the limiting reagent because it will dictate the amount of Pb3(PO4)2 produced.
The stoichiometric calculations are as follows:
For PbCl2:
Moles of Pb3(PO4)2 formed from PbCl2=3 mmol of PbCl2/mmol of Pb3(PO4)272 mmol of PbCl2=24 mmol
For (NH4)3PO4:
Moles of Pb3(PO4)2 formed from (NH4)3PO4=2 mmol of (NH4)3PO4/mmol of Pb3(PO4)250 mmol of (NH4)3PO4=25 mmol
Now we can identify the limiting reagent by comparing the two amounts of Pb3(PO4)2 that could be produced. The smaller quantity will be the actual amount produced since the limiting reagent restricts the reaction.
Since the PbCl2 can produce only 24 mmol of Pb3(PO4)2 versus the 25 mmol that could be produced by (NH4)3PO4, PbCl2 is the limiting reagent.
Therefore, the amount of Pb3(PO4)2 formed is 24 mmol (as a nearest integer).
Q 53ChemistrySection A • MCQcompounds containing nitrogen
+4 / -1
Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : The NH2 group in Aniline is ortho and para directing and a powerful activating group.
Statement (II) : Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Craft's reaction (alkylation and acylation).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The given statements pertain to aniline, a primary amine where the amino group (NH2) is directly attached to a benzene ring. Let's analyze the statements:
Statement (I): The NH2 group in Aniline is ortho and para directing and a powerful activating group.
This statement is correct. The amino group (NH2) in aniline is an electron-donating group due to the lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom. It increases the electron density on the benzene ring, particularly at the ortho and para positions. This in turn makes the ortho and para positions more reactive toward electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions. Therefore, the amino group is considered to be an ortho and para director and is one of the most powerful activating groups in the context of electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions.
Statement (II): Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Craft's reaction (alkylation and acylation).
This statement is also correct. Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation or acylation reactions. The reason for this is twofold: Firstly, the Lewis acid catalysts used in Friedel-Crafts reactions (such as AlCl3) react with the amino group to form a complex that deactivates the benzene ring toward further reaction. Secondly, the strong interaction between the Lewis acid and the lone pair on the nitrogen can lead to a salt formation rather than the desired alkylation or acylation of the benzene ring. Moreover, the acidic conditions can lead to protonation of the amino group, converting it into an NH3+ group, which is meta-directing and deactivating, further inhibiting the reaction.
Given this analysis, the correct option is:
Option A: Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Q 54ChemistrySection A • MCQaldehydes ketones and carboxylic acids
+4 / -1
Identify A and B in the following sequence of reaction
A
B
C
D
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Q 55ChemistrySection A • MCQpractical organic chemistry
+4 / -1
In Kjeldahl's method for estimation of nitrogen, CuSO4 acts as :
A
catalytic agent
B
hydrolysis agent
C
reducing agent
D
oxidising agent
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The correct option here is :
Option A : catalytic agent
In the Kjeldahl method for the estimation of nitrogen, CuSO4 or copper sulfate acts as a catalytic agent. The method consists of three main steps: digestion, neutralization, and titration. During the digestion phase, the organic substance containing nitrogen is heated with concentrated sulfuric acid (H2SO4), which digests or breaks down the organic matrix, releasing the nitrogen in the form of ammonium sulfate ((NH4)2SO4).
Organic compound +H2SO4CuSO4(NH4)2SO4
Catalysts such as CuSO4, along with other salts like potassium sulfate (K2SO4), are added to the reaction mixture to raise the boiling point of the sulfuric acid and to accelerate the oxidation of the organic material. This increases the rate of the digestion process, ensuring that the nitrogen within the sample is fully converted to ammonium ions (NH4+). The catalyst itself is not consumed in the reaction and does not become a part of the product; its role is to increase the reaction rate. After digestion, the mixture is neutralized with a base, and then the liberated ammonia is distilled off and quantitatively measured, typically by titration with a standard acid solution.
Therefore, CuSO4 serves as a catalyst in this chemical analysis technique for quantitatively determining the nitrogen content of organic substances.
Q 56ChemistrySection B • Numericalelectrochemistry
+4 / -1
The potential for the given half cell at 298K is (-) __________ ×10−2V
2H(aq)++2e−⟶H2(g)[H+]=1M,PH2=2atm
(Given : 2.303RT/F=0.06V,log2=0.3 )
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 1
Official Correct Answer:1
Step-by-Step Solution:
To find the potential of the given half cell at 298 K, we can use the Nernst equation, which in this scenario is simplified due to the standard conditions for the hydrogen ion concentration ([H+]=1M). The half-reaction involved is the reduction of hydrogen ions to hydrogen gas:
2H(aq)++2e−⟶H2(g)
Given:
Pressure of H2=2 atm
Hydrogen ion concentration [H+]=1M
2.303FRT=0.06V (a constant that simplifies calculation at 298 K)
log2=0.3
The Nernst equation for this reaction under the given conditions becomes:
E=E∘−n0.06log[H+]2PH2
Where E∘=0.00V is the standard electrode potential for the hydrogen half-cell, n=2 is the number of electrons transferred, and the pressure of H2 is given as 2 atm. Inserting the values, we get:
Therefore, the potential of the given half-cell at 298 K is −0.9×10−2V.
Q 57ChemistrySection A • MCQthermodynamics
+4 / -1
Choose the correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition from the following :
A
q=0,ΔT=0,w=0
B
q=0,ΔT=0,w=0
C
q=0,ΔT=0,w=0
D
q=0,ΔT<0,w=0
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let's analyze what happens during a free (or unrestrained) expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic conditions:
Adiabatic process : By definition, in an adiabatic process, no heat is transferred between the system and its surroundings. Thus, q=0.
Free expansion : In a free expansion, the gas expands into a vacuum or against zero external pressure. Since work (w) is defined as the product of pressure (P) and volume change (ΔV), and since the external pressure is zero, we conclude that w=0.
Temperature change (ΔT) : Since work is zero and no heat is transferred, the first law of thermodynamics tells us that the change in internal energy (ΔU) is zero as well. For an ideal gas, internal energy is a function of temperature only; thus, if the internal energy does not change, the temperature does not change. Therefore, ΔT=0.
Based on the above points, the free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic conditions is characterized by no heat transfer (q=0), no work done (w=0), and no change in temperature (ΔT=0). Therefore, the correct option is:
Option A : q=0,ΔT=0,w=0
Q 58ChemistrySection B • Numericalchemical kinetics and nuclear chemistry
+4 / -1
The ratio of 12C14C in a piece of wood is 81 part that of atmosphere. If half life of 14C is 5730 years, the age of wood sample is ________ years.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 17190
Official Correct Answer:17190
Step-by-Step Solution:
The given problem involves calculating the age of a wood sample using the carbon-14 dating method. Carbon-14 (14C) is a radioactive isotope of carbon that decays over time, and its ratio compared to carbon-12 (12C) can be used to date organic materials. The ratio of 12C14C in the wood is 81th of that in the atmosphere, suggesting the 14C has decayed. The half-life of 14C is given as 5730 years, which is the time for half the 14C to decay.
To solve for the age of the wood, we use the formula for radioactive decay:
N=N0e−λt,
where N is the remaining amount of 14C, N0 is the original amount of 14C, λ is the decay constant, and t is the time (age of the wood).
Since the ratio N0N=81, we infer that N=8N0. Substituting into the decay equation and solving for t, first we find the decay constant λ:
λ=t1/20.693=57300.693.
Substitute λ and rearrange to solve for t:
t=λln(8)=0.693ln(8)×5730=3×5730=17190 years.
This calculation shows that the wood sample is 17190 years old.
Q 59ChemistrySection B • Numericalchemical bonding and molecular structure
+4 / -1
The number of molecules/ion/s having trigonal bipyramidal shape is _______.
PF5,BrF5,PCl5,[PtCl4]2−,BF3,Fe(CO)5
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 3
Official Correct Answer:3
Step-by-Step Solution:
Q 60ChemistrySection A • MCQaldehydes ketones and carboxylic acids
+4 / -1
Match List - I with List - II.
List I (Reactions)
List II (Reagents)
(A)
(I) CH3MgBr, H2O
(B) C6H5COC6H5 ⟶ C6H5CH=C6H5
(II) Zn(Hg) and conc. HCl
(C) C6H5CHO ⟶ C6H5CH(OH)CH3
(III) NaBH4, H+
(D)
(IV) DIBAL-H, H2O
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
B
(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
C
(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
D
(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Q 61MathematicsSection A • MCQmatrices and determinants
+4 / -1
If the system of equations
2x+3y−z=5x+αy+3z=−43x−y+βz=7
has infinitely many solutions, then 13αβ is equal to :
A
1110
B
1120
C
1210
D
1220
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Given 2x+3y−z=5x+αy+3z=−43x−y+βz=7Δ2=213−13β5−47Δ2=2(21+4β)+1(7+12)+5(β−9)Δ2=42+8β+19+5β−45Δ2=13β+16Δ2=0
Since tangent is positive and all the angles A, B, and C are in the first quadrant, we can say that:
A+B=C
Hence, the answer is:
Option A : C
Q 63MathematicsSection A • MCQarea under the curves
+4 / -1
The area enclosed by the curves xy+4y=16 and x+y=6 is equal to :
A
28−30loge2
B
30−28loge2
C
30−32loge2
D
32−30loge2
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To find the enclosed area between the two curves xy+4y=16 and x+y=6, we need to determine the region of intersection and integrate the difference of the functions over the interval where they intersect.
First, let's solve the equations simultaneously to find the points of intersection.
The second curve x+y=6 can be rewritten as y=6−x.
Substitute y=6−x into the first equation:
x(6−x)+4(6−x)=16
6x−x2+24−4x=16
−x2+2x+8=0
This can be simplified to:
x2−2x−8=0
Using the quadratic formula, we can find the roots of this equation:
x=2(1)−(−2)±(−2)2−4(1)(−8)
x=22±4+32
x=22±36
x=22±6
So we have two solutions:
x1=22+6=4
x2=22−6=−2
For x1=4, substitute this back into the line equation x+y=6:
4+y=6
y=2
For x2=−2, do the same:
−2+y=6
y=8
So we have two points of intersection: (4,2) and (−2,8).
Now, to find the area between xy+4y=16 and x+y=6, we'll integrate the top function minus the bottom function from x=−2 to x=4. First, we need to express y from both equations in terms of x:
Function is differentiable at every point in its domain
∴m=0
m + a + b + c = 0 + 1 + 1 + 0 = 2
Q 65MathematicsSection A • MCQhyperbola
+4 / -1
For 0<θ<π/2, if the eccentricity of the hyperbola
x2−y2cosec2θ=5 is 7 times eccentricity of the
ellipse x2cosec2θ+y2=5, then the value of θ is :
A
6π
B
125π
C
3π
D
4π
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To find the value of θ, we need to determine the relationship between the eccentricities of the given hyperbola and ellipse. Let's start by writing down the standard forms of ellipse and hyperbola and then relate them to the given equations.
The standard form of an ellipse is:
a2x2+b2y2=1
The eccentricity e of an ellipse is given by:
e=1−a2b2fora>b
For the given ellipse:
x2cosec2θ+y2=5
We can compare it with the standard form by writing it as:
cosec2θ5x2+5y2=1
From this we have a2=cosec2θ5 and b2=5. The eccentricity of the ellipse (let's call it e1) is:
e1=1−a25=1−cosec2θ55=1−sin2θ=cosθ
The standard form of a hyperbola is:
a2x2−b2y2=1
The eccentricity e of a hyperbola is given by:
e=1+a2b2
For the given hyperbola:
x2−y2cosec2θ=5
We can rewrite it as:
5x2−cosec2θ5y2=1
From this we have a2=5 and b2=cosec2θ5. The eccentricity of the hyperbola (let's call it e2) is:
e2=1+5cosec2θ5=1+sin2θ
According to the question the eccentricity of the hyperbola is 7 times the eccentricity of the ellipse, so we can write:
e2=7⋅e1
Substitute e1 and e2 from the above:
1+sin2θ=7⋅cosθ
Square both sides to eliminate the square root:
1+sin2θ=7⋅cos2θ
1+sin2θ=7⋅(1−sin2θ)
1+sin2θ=7−7⋅sin2θ
8⋅sin2θ=6
sin2θ=86=43
sinθ=43=23
Looking at the options provided and knowing the sine values for common angles, we can see that sinθ=23 corresponds to θ=3π.
The correct answer is:
Option C.
3π
Q 66MathematicsSection A • MCQ3d geometry
+4 / -1
If the shortest distance between the lines
−2x−λ=1y−2=1z−1 and 1x−3=−2y−1=1z−2 is 1 , then the sum of all possible values of λ is :
A
0
B
23
C
33
D
−23
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Given the two lines:
L1:−2x−λ=1y−2=1z−1
L2:1x−3=−2y−1=1z−2
We observe that these lines are not parallel as their directional vectors are not proportional. The directional vector for L1 is (−2,1,1) and for L2 is (1,−2,1). The shortest distance between two skew (non-intersecting and non-parallel) lines in the three-dimensional space is along the line that is perpendicular to both lines. This implies we can find a vector that is perpendicular to both directional vectors by taking their cross product.
The directional vector for L1 is d1=⟨−2,1,1⟩, and for L2 is d2=⟨1,−2,1⟩. The cross product of d1 and d2, which will be perpendicular to both lines, is given by:
The shortest distance D between the two lines can then be given by the formula:
D=∥d∥∣(a2−a1)⋅d∣
Where a1 and a2 are position vectors to any points on line L1 and line L2, respectively, and '⋅' denotes the dot product.
From the lines' equations, we can choose a point on each line (when the parameter is zero). Thus, for L1, let's choose the point A(λ,2,1), and for L2, let's choose the point B(3,1,2). These points correspond to the vectors a1=⟨λ,2,1⟩ and a2=⟨3,1,2⟩, respectively.
The vector a2−a1 is:
a2−a1=⟨3,1,2⟩−⟨λ,2,1⟩
a2−a1=⟨3−λ,1−2,2−1⟩
a2−a1=⟨3−λ,−1,1⟩
We can now substitute this, along with d, into the distance formula:
D=∥⟨3,3,3⟩∥∣(⟨3−λ,−1,1⟩)⋅⟨3,3,3⟩∣
D=32+32+32∣3(3−λ)+3(−1)+3(1)∣
D=27∣33−3λ−3+3∣
D=33∣33−3λ∣
D=3∣3−λ∣
Given that the shortest distance D between the lines is 1, we can equate the above result to 1, and solve for λ:
3∣3−λ∣=1
3−λ=3
This absolute value equation gives us two possible cases:
Case 1: 3−λ=3, which gives λ=0.
Case 2: 3−λ=−3, which gives λ=23.
Therefore, the sum of all possible values of λ is:
λsum=λ1+λ2=0+23=23
Hence, option B (23) is the correct answer.
Q 67MathematicsSection A • MCQquadratic equation and inequalities
+4 / -1
Let S={x∈R:(3+2)x+(3−2)x=10}. Then the number of elements in S is :
A
4
B
0
C
2
D
1
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Notice that (3+2) and (3−2) are reciprocals of each other because :
(3+2)(3−2)=3−2=1
Using the Reciprocal Property :
This means (3−2)x=(3+2)x1
Leta=(3+2)x. The equation given in the problem becomes :
a+a1=10
Simplifying
Multiplying both sides by *a*, we get a quadratic equation :
a2+1=10a
a2−10a+1=0
Solving the Quadratic
Using the quadratic formula, we find :
a=210±96=5±26
Possible values of x
Since a=(3+2)x, we have two cases :
(3+2)x=5+26 = (3+2)2. There is one real solution for x in this case which is x = 2.
(3+2)x=5−26 = (3−2)2=(3+2)21 = (3+2)−2. There is one real solution for x in this case which is x = - 2.
Conclusion
There are two real solutions for *x*. Therefore, the number of elements in the set S is 2. This corresponds with option (C).
Q 68MathematicsSection A • MCQdefinite integration
+4 / -1
The value of the integral 0∫π/4sin4(2x)+cos4(2x)xdx equals :
Let C:x2+y2=4 and C′:x2+y2−4λx+9=0 be two circles. If the set of all values of λ so that the circles C and C intersect at two distinct points, is R−[a,b], then the point (8a+12,16b−20) lies on the curve :
Q 74MathematicsSection B • Numericalsequences and series
+4 / -1
Let 3,7,11,15,…,403 and 2,5,8,11,…,404 be two arithmetic progressions. Then the sum, of the common terms in them, is equal to ___________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 6699
Official Correct Answer:6699
Step-by-Step Solution:
To find the common terms in the two given arithmetic progressions (AP), we need to first identify the common difference for each sequence and then find the sequence that represents their overlap by employing the concept of least common multiple (LCM).
The first AP is:
3,7,11,15,…,403
The common difference (d1) for the first AP can be calculated by subtracting the first term from the second term:
d1=7−3=4
The second AP is:
2,5,8,11,…,404
The common difference (d2) for the second AP is:
d2=5−2=3
To find the terms common to both sequences, we need to find a term that appears in both sequences. Any common term must be of the form 3+4k and 2+3l for some integers k and l. We want to find when these two forms will give us the same number, so we set them equal to each other:
3+4k=2+3l
Rearranging the terms gives us:
4k−3l=2−3
This simplifies to:
4k−3l=−1.......(1)
The solutions to equation (1) will give us the common terms. Notice this is a Diophantine equation (A Diophantine equation is a polynomial equation, usually with two or more variables,) and has an infinite number of solutions. Let's find one such solution. We can see that:
k=1yields4(1)−3l=−1⟹4−3l=−1⟹3l=5⟹l=132
This is not an integer solution for l, so k=1 does not work. Trying k=2 gives:
4(2)−3l=−1⟹8−3l=−1⟹3l=9⟹l=3
Now we've found integers k=2 and l=3 that satisfy the equation. The corresponding term in both sequences would be:
3+4(2)=3+8=11and2+3(3)=2+9=11
Since 11 is a common term, we can assert that every common term in both APs will be of the form 11+m(4×3), where m is a non-negative integer, and 4×3=12 is the LCM of the common differences of the two APs. Thus, the general form for the common terms would be:
11+12m
Now we are to find all terms that are common up to 403 in the first sequence and up to 404 in the second sequence. Because the first sequence doesn't exceed 403, we'll use this as our limit:
11+12m≤403
To find the largest possible integer value for m, we solve the inequality:
12m≤403−11
12m≤392
m≤3232
Since m has to be an integer, the largest possible value for m is 32. Therefore, the common terms are generated by m=0,1,2,…,32. There are 32+1=33 terms in total.
We will now sum these up. The sum of an AP is given by the formula:
S=2n(a1+an)
Where S is the sum, n is the number of terms, a1 is the first term, and an is the last term. Using the formula:
S=233(11+(11+12×32))
S=233(11+11+384)
S=233(11+11+384)
S=233(406)
S=33×203
S=6699
Therefore, the sum of the common terms in the two arithmetic progressions is 6699.
Q 75MathematicsSection A • MCQpermutations and combinations
+4 / -1
If n is the number of ways five different employees can sit into four indistinguishable offices where any office may have any number of persons including zero, then n is equal to :
A
47
B
53
C
51
D
43
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To determine the number of ways in which five different employees can be seated in four indistinguishable offices, we will use the concept of partitioning of an integer.
The problem is equivalent to partitioning the number 5 (representing the 5 different employees) into at most 4 parts (representing the 4 indistinguishable offices) where each part represents the number of employees in each office.
The partitions of 5 into at most 4 parts are as follows :
(5,0,0,0) – One office has 5 employees, and the other three have none.
(4,1,0,0) – One office has 4 employees, another one has 1, and the other two have none.
(3,2,0,0) – One office has 3 employees, another one has 2, and the other two have none.
(3,1,1,0) – One office has 3 employees, two have 1 each, and one has none.
(2,2,1,0) – Two offices have 2 employees each, one has 1, and one has none.
(2,1,1,1) – One office has 2 employees, and the other three have 1 each.
However, since the offices are indistinguishable, we must not count partitions that differ only by the order of the parts. This means that partitions like (5,0,0,0), (0,5,0,0), (0,0,5,0), and (0,0,0,5) all represent the same scenario and thus are counted as one.
So we end up with 6 distinct partition scenarios.
Now, for each partition, we need to find the number of ways to assign the employees according to each partition :
(5,0,0,0) – All employees are in one office. There is 1 way to do this because the offices are indistinguishable.
(4,1,0,0) - For the group with 4 employees, there are 5C4 ways to choose which 4 out of the 5 will be together. Then the remaining employee is automatically assigned to the second office. So, there are 5C4 ways for this partition.
(3,2,0,0) - For the group with 3 employees, there are 5C3 ways to choose them, and for the group with 2 employees, there are 2C2 ways to choose them (which is essentially 1 way since the last 2 employees are automatically grouped). But the 2 offices these groups can occupy are indistinguishable, so we do not multiply by 2. So, there are 5C3 ways for this partition.
(3,1,1,0) - For the group with 3 employees, there are 5C3 ways. Then we have two indistinguishable offices, each with 1 employee. The order does not matter as offices are indistinguishable. So, there are simply 5C3 ways.
(2,2,1,0) – For the first group of 2 employees, there are 5C2 ways to choose them. For the next group of 2 employees, there are 3C2 ways from the remaining 3. Then, the last employee is alone, and since the offices are indistinguishable, there are no further combinations to consider. However, we have double-counted since the two groups of two are indistinguishable. To adjust for this, we divide by 2. This gives us 25C2⋅3C2 ways.
(2,1,1,1) - For the group with 2 employees, there are 5C2 ways to choose them. The other three employees are each in their own office, with no further combinations since the offices are indistinguishable, so there are 5C2 ways for this partition.
Let's compute these cases :
(5,0,0,0) corresponds to 1 way.
(4,1,0,0) corresponds to 5C4=5 ways.
(3,2,0,0) corresponds to 5C3=10 ways.
(3,1,1,0) corresponds to 5C3=10 ways.
(2,2,1,0) corresponds to 25C2⋅3C2=210⋅3=15 ways.
(2,1,1,1) corresponds to 5C2=10 ways.
Adding up all the ways we get :
1+5+10+10+15+10=51
Therefore, the number of ways five different employees can sit into four indistinguishable offices (n) is 51, which corresponds to Option C.
Q 76MathematicsSection A • MCQdifferential equations
+4 / -1
Let y=y(x) be the solution of the differential equation
dxdy=2x(x+y)3−x(x+y)−1,y(0)=1.
Then, (21+y(21))2 equals :
A
4+e4
B
3−e3
C
1+e2
D
2−e1
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
dxdy=2x(x+y)3−x(x+y)−1 Put x+y=t⇒dxdy=dxdt−1dxdt−1=2x(t)3−xt
⇒⇒2t3−tdt=xdx∫2t3−t1dt=∫xdx∫2t4−t2tdt=∫xdx
t2=z2tdt=dz21∫2z2−zdz=∫xdxlnzz−21=x2+c
ln(x+y)2(x+y)2−21=x2+c
y(0)=1⇒c=ln(21)
⇒(x+y)2(x+y)2−21=ex2×21
(x+y)2(x+y)2−21=e×21
⇒(x+y)2=2−e1
Q 77MathematicsSection B • Numericalpermutations and combinations
+4 / -1
The number of elements in the set S={(x,y,z):x,y,z∈Z,x+2y+3z=42,x,y,z⩾0} equals __________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 169
Q 78MathematicsSection B • Numericalbinomial theorem
+4 / -1
If the Coefficient of x30 in the expansion of (1+x1)6(1+x2)7(1−x3)8;x=0 is α, then ∣α∣ equals ___________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 678
Official Correct Answer:678
Step-by-Step Solution:
Coefficient of x30 in x6(1+x)6(1+x2)7(1−x3)8⇒ Coefficient of x36 in (1+x)6(1+x2)7(1−x3)8⇒ General term =6Cr17Cr28Cr3(−1)r3xr1+2r2+3r3⇒r1+2r2+3r3=36
Let the median and the mean deviation about the median of 7 observation 170,125,230,190,210, a, b be 170 and 7205 respectively. Then the mean deviation about the mean of these 7 observations is :
A
31
B
28
C
30
D
32
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Median =170⇒125,a,b,170,190,210,230
Mean deviation about
Median =
70+45+60+20+40+170−a+170−b=7205⇒a+b=300 Mean =7170+125+230+190+210+a+b=175
Mean deviation
About mean =
750+175−a+175−b+5+15+35+55=30
Q 80MathematicsSection A • MCQsequences and series
+4 / -1
Let 3,a,b,c be in A.P. and 3,a−1,b+1,c+9 be in G.P. Then, the arithmetic mean of a,b and c is :
A
-4
B
-1
C
13
D
11
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Since 3,a,b,c are in arithmetic progression (A.P.), the common difference can be calculated using the term a (the second term) as follows:
d=a−3
The nth term of an A.P. is given by the formula:
Tn=a+(n−1)d
So, using this formula, we can express b and c in terms of a and d:
b=a+d
c=a+2d
Substituting d=a−3 into these expressions:
b=a+(a−3)
c=a+2(a−3)
Therefore:
b=2a−3
c=3a−6
Now, let's consider that 3,a−1,b+1,c+9 are in geometric progression (G.P.). For terms in a G.P., the ratio (common ratio, r) between consecutive terms is constant. So:
3a−1=a−1b+1=b+1c+9
Now, we will establish the relation between the terms using the property of G.P.:
3a−1=a−1b+1
(a−1)2=3(b+1)
a2−2a+1=3b+3
Substituting b=2a−3, we get:
a2−2a+1=3(2a−3)+3
a2−2a+1=6a−9+3
a2−8a+7=0
Solving this quadratic equation:
(a−7)(a−1)=0
Hence, a=7 or a=1. However, if a=1, the terms 3,a−1,b+1,c+9 cannot form a G.P. as it would involve division by zero. Therefore, a=7. We use this value to find b and c:
b=2a−3=2(7)−3=14−3=11
c=3a−6=3(7)−6=21−6=15
Now we can find the arithmetic mean (A) of a, b, and c:
A=3a+b+c
A=37+11+15
A=333
A=11
Hence, the arithmetic mean of a, b, and c is 11, which corresponds to Option D.
Q 81MathematicsSection A • MCQmatrices and determinants
+4 / -1
If A=[2−112],B=[1101],C=ABAT and X=ATC2A, then detX is equal to :
A
243
B
729
C
27
D
891
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The solution involves understanding matrix operations and properties such as multiplication, transpose, and determinant. Given A, B, and that C=ABAT, and X=ATC2A, we find detX as follows:
First, we express ∣C∣, the determinant of C, in terms of the determinants of A and B, using the property that ∣ABC∣=∣A∣⋅∣B∣⋅∣C∣:
∣C∣=∣ABAT∣=∣A∣⋅∣B∣⋅∣AT∣=∣A∣2⋅∣B∣since ∣AT∣=∣A∣.
Next, we find ∣X∣, using the property ∣ABC∣=∣A∣⋅∣B∣⋅∣C∣ and substituting ∣C∣:
∣X∣=∣ATC2A∣=∣AT∣⋅∣C∣2⋅∣A∣=∣A∣2⋅∣C∣2.
Substituting the expression for ∣C∣ obtained earlier:
∣X∣=∣A∣2⋅(∣A∣2⋅∣B∣)2=(∣A∣3⋅∣B∣)2.
The determinants of A and B are calculated as:
∣A∣=2−112=2+1=3
∣B∣=1101=1
Finally, substituting these values into our expression for ∣X∣:
∣X∣=(33⋅1)2=729.
Therefore, detX=729.
Q 82MathematicsSection B • Numericallimits continuity and differentiability
+4 / -1
Let {x} denote the fractional part of x and f(x)={x}−{x}3cos−1(1−{x}2)sin−1(1−{x}),x=0. If L and R respectively denotes the left hand limit and the right hand limit of f(x) at x=0, then π232(L2+R2) is equal to ___________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 18
Q 83MathematicsSection B • Numericalsets and relations
+4 / -1
Let A={1,2,3,…,20}. Let R1 and R2 two relation on A such that
R1={(a,b):b is divisible by a}
R2={(a,b):a is an integral multiple of b}.
Then, number of elements in R1−R2 is equal to _____________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 46
Official Correct Answer:46
Step-by-Step Solution:
To determine the number of elements in R1−R2, let's first articulate the meaning of both relations on set A={1,2,3,…,20}:
R1 includes pairs (a,b) where b is divisible by a. This includes pairs like (1,1),(1,2),…,(1,20) for 1; similar series for 2 up to (2,20) (excluding odd numbers); for 3 up to (3,18); and so on, reflecting the divisibility condition.
R2 consists of pairs (a,b) where a is an integral multiple of b. Essentially, this relationship is the reverse of R1. However, for the essence of R1−R2, the key overlap comes with pairs where a=b, since those are the pairs that clearly reflect both conditions identically (i.e., a number is always divisible by itself, and it is always a multiple of itself). There are 20 such pairs corresponding to each integer in A from 1 to 20, resulting in the common elements between R1 and R2 (the intersection R1∩R2) being 20 pairs.
R1∩R2={(1,1),(2,2),…(20,20)}n(R1∩R2)=20
The difference R1−R2 seeks elements present in R1 but not in R2. Given that R1 and R2 share 20 elements that are identical, to find R1−R2, we subtract these 20 common elements from the total in R1, resulting in 66−20=46 pairs.
y=9x2f(x)y=5x4−2x2−4y′=20x3−4x Put y′>020x3−4x>05x3−x>0x(5x2−1)>0
x∈(−51,0)∪(51,∞)
Q 85MathematicsSection B • Numericalparabola
+4 / -1
Let the line L:2x+y=α pass through the point of the intersection P (in the first quadrant) of the circle x2+y2=3 and the parabola x2=2y. Let the line L touch two circles C1 and C2 of equal radius 23. If the centres Q1 and Q2 of the circles C1 and C2 lie on the y-axis, then the square of the area of the triangle PQ1Q2 is equal to ___________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 72
Q 87MathematicsSection B • Numericalcomplex numbers
+4 / -1
Let P={z∈C:∣z+2−3i∣≤1} and Q={z∈C:z(1+i)+zˉ(1−i)≤−8}. Let in P∩Q, ∣z−3+2i∣ be maximum and minimum at z1 and z2 respectively. If ∣z1∣2+2∣z2∣2=α+β2, where α,β are integers, then α+β equals _____________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 36
Official Correct Answer:36
Step-by-Step Solution:
Clearly for the shaded region z1 is the intersection of the circle and the line passing through P(L1) and z2 is intersection of line L1&L2
Circle : (x+2)2+(y−3)2=1
L1:x+y−1=0L2:x−y+4=0
On solving circle &L1 we get
z1:(−2−21,3+21)
On solving L1 and z2 is intersection of line L1&L2 we get z2:(2−3,25)
∣z1∣2+2∣z2∣2=14+52+17=31+52
So α=31β=5α+β=36
Q 88MathematicsSection A • MCQellipse
+4 / -1
Let a2x2+b2y2=1,a>b be an ellipse, whose eccentricity is 21 and the length of the latusrectum is 14. Then the square of the eccentricity of a2x2−b2y2=1 is :
A
3
B
27
C
23
D
25
Official Correct Answer:Option (C)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Given the ellipse a2x2+b2y2=1 with a>b, the eccentricity e is given by the formula:
e=1−(ab)2
It is provided that the eccentricity e is 21 (given), so we can equate the two expressions for eccentricity:
21=1−(ab)2
Squaring both sides to eliminate the square root gives:
21=1−(ab)2
(ab)2=1−21
(ab)2=21
Taking the square root on both sides:
ab=21
a=b2
Now, for the ellipse, the length of the latus rectum is given by the formula:
Length of Latus Rectum (L)=a2b2
It's provided that the length of the latus rectum L is 14, so substitute the known values to find b:
14=b22b2=22b
b2=14
b2=214
b2=7
And since a=b2, we can find a2:
a2=(b2)2
a2=7⋅2
a2=14
Now we have an ellipse with a2=14 and b2=7. The equation of a hyperbola similar to the given ellipse but with the terms subtracted is:
a2x2−b2y2=1
For the hyperbola, the square of the eccentricity e′ is given by:
(e′)2=1+a2b2
Substitute the values we've found for a2 and b2 into the formula for the square of the hyperbola's eccentricity:
(e′)2=1+a2b2
(e′)2=1+147
(e′)2=1+21
(e′)2=23
Therefore, the square of the eccentricity of the hyperbola is 23, which corresponds to option C.
Q 89MathematicsSection A • MCQprobability
+4 / -1
A bag contains 8 balls, whose colours are either white or black. 4 balls are drawn at random without replacement and it was found that 2 balls are white and other 2 balls are black. The probability that the bag contains equal number of white and black balls is :