Official NTA Question PaperFull Solved Paper2024Paper 2
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2 Question Paper with Solutions
Official solved question paper for Joint Entrance Examination (Advanced). Review all 51 questions, official answer keys, and detailed step-by-step solutions below, or attempt online with timer and negative marking.
An infinitely long thin wire, having a uniform charge density per unit length of 5nC/m, is passing through a spherical shell of radius 1m, as shown in the figure. A 10nC charge is distributed uniformly over the spherical shell. If the configuration of the charges remains static, the magnitude of the potential difference between points P and R, in Volt, is ________.
[Given: In SI units 4πϵ01=9×109,ln2=0.7. Ignore the area pierced by the wire.]
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 171
Official Correct Answer:171
Step-by-Step Solution:
due to wire
due to sphere
Q 2PhysicsSection B • Numericalelectrostatics
+4 / -0
A charge is kept at the central point P of a cylindrical region. The two edges subtend a half-angle θ at P, as shown in the figure. When θ=30∘, then the electric flux through the curved surface of the cylinder is Φ. If θ=60∘, then the electric flux through the curved surface becomes Φ/n, where the value of n is ___.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 3
Official Correct Answer:3
Step-by-Step Solution:
Place a point charge at the centre of a cylindrical Gaussian surface. Because of symmetry, the electric flux across each circular end cap is the same; call this . Let be the flux through the curved side. Applying Gauss’s law to the closed cylinder, the total flux is
The solid angle subtended at point by the flat surface (spherical cap of half-angle ) is ). The total solid angle is . Thus, the flux through one flat surface is
Solve the above equations to get
The flux through the curved surface for is
Q 3PhysicsSection A • MCQdual nature of radiation
+3 / -1
A metal target with atomic number Z=46 is bombarded with a high energy electron beam. The emission of X-rays from the target is analyzed. The ratio r of the wavelengths of the Kα-line and the cut-off is found to be r=2. If the same electron beam bombards another metal target with Z=41, the value of r will be
A
2.53
B
1.27
C
2.24
D
1.58
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To solve this problem, we need to understand the relationship between the atomic number Z, the characteristic X-ray wavelengths, and the cut-off wavelength in X-ray spectra.
The cut-off wavelength, also known as the minimum wavelength (λmin), corresponds to the maximum energy of the X-rays produced and can be related to the accelerating voltage used in the X-ray tube. The characteristic X-rays, such as the Kα-line, correspond to specific electron transitions in the atom and are dependent on the atomic number Z of the target material.
The wavelength of the Kα-line is given by Moseley's Law, which can be approximated as:
λKα∝(Z−1)21
The cut-off wavelength is given by the relationship between the energy of the incident electrons and the X-ray produced:
λmin=eVhc
Now, given the ratio r for the first metal target with Z=46 :
r=λminλKα=2
For the second metal target with Z=41, let's denote the new ratio as r2. We assume the same cutoff wavelength since the same electron beam is used.
The ratio for Z=41 can be calculated using the relationship between the Kα-line wavelenghts:
So, the value of r for the second metal target with Z=41 is:
Option A: 2.53
Q 4PhysicsSection B • Numericalwave optics
+3 / -0
Read the passage carefully:
In a Young's double slit experiment, each of the two slits A and B, as shown in the figure, are oscillating about their fixed center and with a mean separation of 0.8mm. The distance between the slits at time t is given by d=(0.8+0.04sinωt)mm, where ω=0.08rads−1. The distance of the screen from the slits is 1m and the wavelength of the light used to illuminate the slits is 6000 Å
. The interference pattern on the screen changes with time, while the central bright fringe (zeroth fringe) remains fixed at point O.
The 8th bright fringe above the point O oscillates with time between two extreme positions. The separation between these two extreme positions, in micrometer (μm), is _________ .
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 601.50
Official Correct Answer:601.50
Step-by-Step Solution:
The position of the mth bright fringe on the screen (measured from the central point O) in a Young’s double-slit experiment is given by the condition for constructive interference: ym=dmλD, where
m = fringe order, here m=8, λ = wavelength of light, 6000A˚=6000×10−10m=6×10−7m, D = slit-screen distance, 1m, d = instantaneous slit separation.
The slit separation oscillates as d=(0.8+0.04sinωt)mm with ω=0.08rad s−1. Hence
Maximum separation (when sinωt=+1): dmax=(0.8+0.04)mm=0.84mm=0.84×10−3m.
Minimum separation (when sinωt=−1): dmin=(0.8−0.04)mm=0.76mm=0.76×10−3m.
Because ym is inversely proportional to d, the fringe lies farthest from O when d is minimum and closest when d is maximum.
Converting to micrometres: 0.6015mm=0.6015×103μm=601.5μm.
Hence, the required separation is 601.50 µm.
Q 5PhysicsSection B • Numericalheat and thermodynamics
+4 / -0
A spherical soap bubble inside an air chamber at pressure P0=105Pa has a certain radius so that the excess pressure inside the bubble is ΔP=144Pa. Now, the chamber pressure is reduced to 8P0/27 so that the bubble radius and its excess pressure change. In this process, all the temperatures remain unchanged. Assume air to be an ideal gas and the excess pressure ΔP in both the cases to be much smaller than the chamber pressure. The new excess pressure ΔP in Pa is ______.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 96
Official Correct Answer:96
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let the outside (chamber) pressure initially be P0=105Pa.
Inside the soap bubble the pressure is higher by the excess pressure ΔP produced by surface tension, so
Pin,1=P0+ΔP.
For a soap bubble (two surfaces) the excess pressure is related to the surface tension T and the bubble radius R by
ΔP=R4T−(1)
The chamber pressure is now reduced to P2=278P0 while temperature is kept constant.
Because no air escapes from the bubble, the amount of gas inside remains the same, so the ideal-gas relation at constant temperature applies:
Pin,1V1=Pin,2V2,
where V=34πR3 is the bubble volume.
Using Pin,1=P0+ΔP and Pin,2=P2+ΔP2, we get
(P0+ΔP)R3=(P2+ΔP2)R23.−(2)
At the new equilibrium the excess pressure is
ΔP2=R24T.−(3)
Divide (1) by (3) to relate the two radii:
ΔP2ΔP=RR2⟹R2=RΔP2ΔP.−(4)
The statement “ΔP is much smaller than the chamber pressure” lets us neglect the terms ΔP and ΔP2 compared with P0 and P2.
Thus Pin,1≈P0 and Pin,2≈P2, and equation (2) simplifies to
P0R3=P2R23.−(5)
Substituting R2 from (4) into (5):
P0R3=P2(RΔP2ΔP)3⟹ΔP2ΔP=(P0P2)1/3.−(6)
Rearranging (6) gives
ΔP2=ΔP(P0P2)1/3.−(7)
Insert the numerical values: ΔP=144Pa and P2/P0=278.
Because (278)1/3=32,
ΔP2=144×32=96Pa.
Therefore, the new excess pressure in the bubble is 96 Pa.
Q 6PhysicsSection B • Numericalray optics
+4 / -0
Two equilateral-triangular prisms P1 and P2 are kept with their sides parallel to each other, in vacuum, as shown in the figure. A light ray enters prism P1 at an angle of incidence θ such that the outgoing ray undergoes minimum deviation in prism P2. If the respective refractive indices of P1 and P2 are 23 and 3, then θ=sin−1[23sin(βπ)], where the value of β is ____.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 12
Official Correct Answer:12
Step-by-Step Solution:
For each equilateral-triangular prism the refracting (apex) angle is A=60∘=3π.
Step 1: Condition for minimum deviation in prism P2
For minimum deviation in any prism, the path of the ray is symmetrical, so
r=r′=2A=30∘ inside the prism, and the angles of incidence and emergence are equal: i=e.
Applying Snell’s law at the first face of P2 (outside medium is vacuum, n=1): sini=n2sinr
Given n2=3, therefore sini=3sin30∘=3(21)=23
so i=60∘=3π.
Hence the light ray must strike the first face of P2 with an incidence angle of 60∘.
Step 2: This same ray is the emergent ray from prism P1
The two prisms are arranged with their corresponding faces parallel; therefore the angle the ray makes with the normal when it leaves P1 is the same 60∘.
Let that angle of emergence from P1 be e1=60∘.
Step 3: Ray path inside prism P1
Let the angles of refraction at the two faces of P1 be r1 and r2. For any prism r1+r2=A=60∘−(1)
Snell’s law at the second face (emergence) of P1: n1sinr2=sine1
Given e1=60∘ and n1=23, we get sinr2=n1sin60∘=2323=22=sin45∘
so r2=45∘.
Using (1): r1=60∘−45∘=15∘.
Step 4: Incidence angle θ on the first face of P1
Apply Snell’s law at the first face of P1: sinθ=n1sinr1=23sin15∘
Since 15∘=12π, sinθ=23sin(12π).
The question states this result as
θ=sin−1[23sin(βπ)].
Comparing, we must have
βπ=12π⟹β=12.
Hence the required value is 12.
Q 7PhysicsSection A • MCQmagnetism
+3 / -1
A thin stiff insulated metal wire is bent into a circular loop with its two ends extending tangentially from the same point of the loop. The wire loop has mass m and radius r and it is in a uniform vertical magnetic field B0, as shown in the figure. Initially, it hangs vertically downwards, because of acceleration due to gravity g, on two conducting supports at P and Q. When a current I is passed through the loop, the loop turns about the line PQ by an angle θ given by
A
tanθ=πrIB0/(mg)
B
tanθ=2πrIB0/(mg)
C
tanθ=πrIB0/(2mg)
D
tanθ=mg/(πrIB0)
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Using magnetic moment of a circular loop: M=IA=I(πr2)
Using torque due to uniform vertical magnetic field B0 when loop tilts by angle θ:
τm=∣M×B0∣=MB0cosθ=πr2IB0cosθ
Using restoring torque due to gravity acting at the center of mass:
τg=mg(rsinθ)=mgrsinθ
Equating torques at rotational equilibrium about the axis PQ:
τm=τg⟹πr2IB0cosθ=mgrsinθ
cosθsinθ=mgrπr2IB0⟹tanθ=mgπrIB0
Q 8PhysicsSection B • Numericalelectrostatics
+4 / -2
A small electric dipole p0, having a moment of inertia I about its center, is kept at a distance r from the center of a spherical shell of radius R. The surface charge density σ is uniformly distributed on the spherical shell. The dipole is initially oriented at a small angle θ as shown in the figure. While staying at a distance r, the dipole is free to rotate about its center.
If released from rest, then which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
[ ε0 is the permittivity of free space.]
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
τ=∣p×E∣
Iα=p0Esinθ
α=Ip⋅θ(4πε01r2σ4πR2)
α=(Iε0r2p0σR2)⋅θ
∴ω=Iε0r2p0σR2
For r=2R:
ω=4Iε0p0σ(Cisincorrect)
Also, for r=10R:
ω=Iε0(100)p0σ(Discorrect)
It will oscillate for any finite value of r>R. (B is correct)
Q 9PhysicsSection B • Numericalproperties of matter
+4 / -2
A table tennis ball has radius (3/2)×10−2m and mass (22/7)×10−3kg. It is slowly pushed down into a swimming pool to a depth of d=0.7m below the water surface and then released from rest. It emerges from the water surface at speed v, without getting wet, and rises up to a height H. Which of the following option(s) is(are) correct?
[Given: π=22/7,g=10ms−2, density of water =1×103kgm−3, viscosity of water =1×10−3Pa-s.]
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
Radius of the ball, r=23×10−2m=0.015m
Mass of the ball, m=722×10−3kg=π×10−3kg=3.1429×10−3kg
Volume of the ball V=34πr3 r3=0.0153=3.375×10−6m3 V=34π(3.375×10−6)=4.18879×3.375×10−6=1.414×10−5m3
Buoyant force in water Fb=ρwgV=(1000)(10)(1.414×10−5)=0.1414N
Weight of the ball W=mg=(3.1429×10−3)(10)=0.03143N
Net upward force (viscosity neglected) Fnet=Fb−W=0.1414−0.03143=0.1100N≈0.11N
Option A - Work done in pushing the ball down by d=0.7m (quasi-static)
To move slowly we must apply a downward force equal to the constant upward imbalance Fb−W.
Wpush=(Fb−W)d=(0.11)(0.7)=0.077J
Hence Option A is correct.
Option B - Speed v at the water surface (viscosity neglected)
Acceleration inside water: a=mFnet=3.1429×10−30.11≈35ms−2
Using v2=2as with s=d=0.7m: v=2(35)(0.7)=49=7ms−1
Thus Option B is correct.
Option C - Height H above the surface
After emerging, only gravity acts.
H=2gv2=2049=2.45m, not 1.4m.
Therefore Option C is incorrect.
Option D - Ratio of (net force) to (maximum viscous force)
Maximum possible viscous (Stokes) drag inside water occurs at speed v=7ms−1: Fη,max=6πηrv=6(722)(1×10−3)(0.015)(7) (722)×7=22, so
Fη,max=6(22)(0.015)×10−3=1.98×10−3N
Hence
Fη,maxFnet=1.98×10−30.11≈55.56=9500
Option D is therefore correct.
Final result: Option A, Option B and Option D are correct.
Q 10PhysicsSection B • Numericalsimple harmonic motion
+3 / -0
Read the passage carefully:
Two particles, 1 and 2, each of mass m, are connected by a massless spring, and are on a horizontal frictionless plane, as shown in the figure. Initially, the two particles, with their center of mass at x0, are oscillating with amplitude a and angular frequency ω. Thus, their positions at time t are given by x1(t)=(x0+d)+asinωt and x2(t)=(x0−d)−asinωt, respectively, where d>2a. Particle 3 of mass m moves towards this system with speed u0=aω/2, and undergoes instantaneous elastic collision with particle 2 , at time t0. Finally, particles 1 and 2 acquire a center of mass speed vcm and oscillate with amplitude b and the same angular frequency ω.
If the collision occurs at time t0=0, the value of vcm/(aω) will be ______.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 0.75
Official Correct Answer:0.75
Step-by-Step Solution:
The positions of the two identical masses just before the collision are
x1(t)=(x0+d)+asinωt,x2(t)=(x0−d)−asinωt.
Differentiating, their velocities are
v1(t)=aωcosωt,v2(t)=−aωcosωt.
The collision takes place at t0=0, so
v1i=v1(0)=aω,v2i=v2(0)=−aω.
Particle 3 (mass m) approaches from the left with speed
u0=2aω
towards the right (+ve x direction). All three masses are equal, so a one-dimensional perfectly elastic collision simply makes the two colliding particles exchange their velocities.
Hence, immediately after the collision,
v3f=−aω,v2f=u0=2aω,v1f=v1i=aω(particle 1 is untouched).
The centre-of-mass velocity of particles 1 and 2 after the collision is
vcm=2v1f+v2f=2aω+2aω=23aω/2=43aω.
Therefore,
aωvcm=43=0.75.
The required value is 0.75.
Q 11PhysicsSection A • MCQelectromagnetic induction
+3 / -1
A region in the form of an equilateral triangle (in x−y plane) of height L has a uniform magnetic field B pointing in the +z-direction. A conducting loop PQR, in the form of an equilateral triangle of the same height L, is placed in the x−y plane with its vertex P at x=0 in the orientation shown in the figure. At t=0, the loop starts entering the region of the magnetic field with a uniform velocity v along the +x-direction. The plane of the loop and its orientation remain unchanged throughout its motion.
Which of the following graph best depicts the variation of the induced emf (E) in the loop as a function of the distance (x) starting from x=0 ?
A
B
C
D
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
0 to L:
ε=Bℓentv=B×3xv
L to 2 L:
∣emf∣=B(3L−3x0)v−B32x0v
=3BvL−3Bvx0
=Bv[3L−3(x−L)]
=3Bv[L−3x+3L]
=3Bv[4L−3x]
at x=34L: emf =0
Q 12PhysicsSection B • Numericalmagnetism
+4 / -2
A positive, singly ionized atom of mass number AM is accelerated from rest by the voltage 192V. Thereafter, it enters a rectangular region of width w with magnetic field B0=0.1k^ Tesla, as shown in the figure. The ion finally hits a detector at the distance x below its starting trajectory.
[Given: Mass of neutron/proton =(5/3)×10−27kg, charge of the electron =1.6×10−19C.]
Which of the following option(s) is(are) correct?
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
Using kinetic energy from potential difference: K=qV
Using path radius in a magnetic field: R=qB02mK=B01q2mV
R=0.111.6×10−192×AM×35×10−27×192=10AM×400×10−8=0.02AM m=2AM cm
Using geometry of the semicircular path back to the detector plane:
x=2R=4AM cm
Evaluating x for H+ ion (AM=1): x=41=4 cm
Evaluating x for AM=144: x=4144=4×12=48 cm
Evaluating detector limits for 1≤AM≤196:
xmin=41=4 cm⟹x0=4 cm
xmax=4196=4×14=56 cm⟹x1=56 cm
Height (x1−x0)=56−4=52 cm
Minimum field width w to complete the semicircle for AM=196:
Rmax=2196=28 cm⟹wmin=Rmax=28 cm
Answer: Option (A), Option (B)
Q 13PhysicsSection B • Numericalmotion
+4 / -0
A ball is thrown from the location (x0,y0)=(0,0) of a horizontal playground with an initial speed v0 at an angle θ0 from the +x-direction. The ball is to be hit by a stone, which is thrown at the same time from the location (x1,y1)=(L,0). The stone is thrown at an angle (180−θ1) from the +x-direction with a suitable initial speed. For a fixed v0, when (θ0,θ1)=(45∘,45∘), the stone hits the ball after time T1, and when (θ0,θ1)=(60∘,30∘), it hits the ball after time T2. In such a case, (T1/T2)2 is ______.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 2
Official Correct Answer:2
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let the ball start from the origin with speed v0 and projection angle θ0 (measured from the +x-axis).
Its velocity components are vbx=v0cosθ0 and vby=v0sinθ0.
The stone is thrown simultaneously from (L,0) at an angle (180∘−θ1) with the +x-axis.
Hence its horizontal component is toward the negative x-direction: vsx=−vscosθ1, vsy=vssinθ1, where vs is the stone’s launch speed.
Suppose they meet after time t (same t for both because they start together).
Vertical co-ordinate equality
Both experience the same downward acceleration g, so the −21gt2 term cancels:
v0sinθ0t=vssinθ1t
Since t>0,
v0sinθ0=vssinθ1−(2)
From (2), express the stone’s speed: vs=sinθ1v0sinθ0−(3)
Insert (3) into (1) to obtain the common time of flight:
Thus, for any pair (θ0,θ1),
T(θ0,θ1)=v0(cosθ0+sinθ0cotθ1)L
Case 1: (θ0,θ1)=(45∘,45∘)cos45∘=sin45∘=22,cot45∘=1
Denominator in (4):
cos45∘+sin45∘cot45∘=22+22=2
Hence
T1=v02L−(5)
Case 2: (θ0,θ1)=(60∘,30∘)cos60∘=21,sin60∘=23,cot30∘=3
Denominator in (4):
21+233=21+23=2
Thus
T2=2v0L−(6)
Required ratio (T2T1)2=(L/(2v0)L/(v02))2=(22)2=(2)2=2
Therefore, (T1/T2)2=2.
Q 14PhysicsSection A • MCQgravitation
+3 / -1
A particle of mass m is under the influence of the gravitational field of a body of mass M(≫m). The particle is moving in a circular orbit of radius r0 with time period T0 around the mass M. Then, the particle is subjected to an additional central force, corresponding to the potential energy Vc(r)=mα/r3, where α is a positive constant of suitable dimensions and r is the distance from the center of the orbit. If the particle moves in the same circular orbit of radius r0 in the combined gravitational potential due to M and Vc(r), but with a new time period T1, then (T12−T02)/T12 is given by
[G is the gravitational constant.]
A
GMr023α
B
2GMr02α
C
GMr02α
D
GMr022α
Official Correct Answer:Option (A)
Step-by-Step Solution:
The gravitational potential energy due to the central mass M is Vg(r)=−rGMm.
For a circular orbit of radius r0 under gravity alone, the inward (centripetal) force balance is r0mv02=r02GMm⟹v02=r0GM.
The corresponding time period is therefore T0=v02πr0=2πGMr03⟹T02=GM4π2r03.
Now an additional central potential is applied: Vc(r)=r3mα(α>0).
The radial force associated with this potential is obtained from Fr=−drdVc: Fc(r)=−drd(r3mα)=+r43mα.
Since this force is positive in the outward radial direction, it is repulsive. Hence it opposes gravitation.
To keep the particle in the same circular orbit of radius r0, the inward gravitational pull must now be reduced by this repulsion: r0mv12=r02GMm−r043mα⟹v12=r0GM−r033α.
The new time period becomes T1=v12πr0,T12=v124π2r02=GM−r023α4π2r03.
Define A=4π2r03 for brevity, so that T02=GMA,T12=GM−r023αA.
We now evaluate the required ratio: T12T12−T02=1−T12T02=1−GM−r023αAGMA=1−GMGM−r023α=GMr023α.
Thus T12T12−T02=GMr023α.
Hence the correct option is:
Option A which is: GMr023α.
Q 15PhysicsSection B • Numericalsimple harmonic motion
+3 / -0
Read the passage carefully:
Two particles, 1 and 2, each of mass m, are connected by a massless spring, and are on a horizontal frictionless plane, as shown in the figure. Initially, the two particles, with their center of mass at x0, are oscillating with amplitude a and angular frequency ω. Thus, their positions at time t are given by x1(t)=(x0+d)+asinωt and x2(t)=(x0−d)−asinωt, respectively, where d>2a. Particle 3 of mass m moves towards this system with speed u0=aω/2, and undergoes instantaneous elastic collision with particle 2 , at time t0. Finally, particles 1 and 2 acquire a center of mass speed vcm and oscillate with amplitude b and the same angular frequency ω.
If the collision occurs at time t0=π/(2ω), then the value of 4b2/a2 will be ______.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 4.25
Official Correct Answer:4.25
Step-by-Step Solution:
At any instant the coordinates of the two identical masses are given as x1(t)=(x0+d)+asinωt,x2(t)=(x0−d)−asinωt
Hence their centre-of-mass (C-O-M) position is xcm=2x1+x2=x0
which is fixed (initially the C-O-M is at rest).
For the system “two masses m joined by a mass-less spring of force constant k” the oscillation (stretch-compress) mode has angular frequency ω=m2k.−(1)
At the instant of collision, t0=2ωπ, we have sinωt0=sin2π=1,cosωt0=0.
Therefore, just before collision (denote by the superscript “−”) v1−=x˙1=aωcosωt0=0,v2−=x˙2=−aωcosωt0=0.
Both particles of the spring system are instantaneously at rest.
A third particle, also of mass m, approaches particle 2 with speed u0=2aω.
Because the collision between 3 and 2 is perfectly elastic and the two
masses are equal, the standard 1-D result gives v3+=0,v2+=u0
immediately after collision (superscript “+”). Particle 1 is untouched, so v1+=0.
Hence the C-O-M velocity acquired by the spring system (masses 1 & 2) is vcm=2v1++v2+=2u0=4aω.
The internal (relative) motion is analysed in the C-O-M frame.
Let the extension of the spring from its natural length be
x=(x1−x2)−2d.
Initially, the oscillation had amplitude a for each mass, so the relative amplitude was 2a.
At t=t0 the spring is at its extreme extension: x0=2a,x˙−=0.
Immediately after collision the relative velocity becomes
x˙+=v1+−v2+=0−u0=−u0=−2aω.
(The negative sign shows the spring will start to compress.)
Total internal energy in the C-O-M frame just after collision is the sum of
(i) spring potential energy and (ii) kinetic energy of relative motion.
For the two-body system the reduced mass is μ=2m,
and with k related to ω by (1): k=2mω2.
After the collision the two masses again execute simple harmonic motion (same ω) but with a larger amplitude b.
At an extreme, kinetic energy is zero, so E′=21k(2b)2=2kb2.
Equating the two expressions for E′: 2kb2=2ka2+4mu02.
Divide by 2k and substitute u0=2aω and k=2mω2: b2=a2+4m(aω/2)22k1=a2+4ω2a2ω2/4=a2+16a2=a2(1+161)=a21617.
Therefore a24b2=4(1617)=417=4.25.
Hence, the required value is 4.25.
Q 16PhysicsSection B • Numericalwave optics
+3 / -0
Read the passage carefully:
In a Young's double slit experiment, each of the two slits A and B, as shown in the figure, are oscillating about their fixed center and with a mean separation of 0.8mm. The distance between the slits at time t is given by d=(0.8+0.04sinωt)mm, where ω=0.08rads−1. The distance of the screen from the slits is 1m and the wavelength of the light used to illuminate the slits is 6000 Å
. The interference pattern on the screen changes with time, while the central bright fringe (zeroth fringe) remains fixed at point O.
The maximum speed in μm/s at which the 8th bright fringe will move is ______.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 24
Official Correct Answer:24
Step-by-Step Solution:
For the 8th bright fringe in Young’s double-slit experiment, the instantaneous position on the screen is
ym(t)=d(t)mλD
with m=8,D=1 m,λ=6000A˚=6×10−7 m and
d(t)=(0.8+0.04sinωt) mm=(8×10−4+4×10−5sinωt) m,ω=0.08 rad s−1
The speed of this fringe is obtained by differentiating:
Within 0≤θ<2π, choose the region cosθ>0 (same magnitude repeats elsewhere).
Set dθdlnf(θ)=0:
−tanθ−a+bsinθ2bcosθ=0
After simplification, using x=sinθ:
bx2−ax−2b=0
Substituting a=8×10−4,b=4×10−5 gives
x2−20x−2=0⟹x=sinθ≈−0.0995
With this cosθ=1−x2≈0.995 and
dmax=a+bsinθ=8×10−4+4×10−5(−0.0995)≈7.960×10−4 m
Finally, the maximum fringe speed is
vmax=(7.960×10−4)28(6×10−7)(3.2×10−6)(0.995)≈2.4×10−5 m s−1
Expressing in micrometres per second:
vmax≈2.4×10−5 m s−1=24μm s−1
Therefore, the maximum speed of the 8th bright fringe is 24 μm/s.
Q 17PhysicsSection B • Numericalunits and measurements
+4 / -0
The dimensions of a cone are measured using a scale with a least count of 2mm. The diameter of the base and the height are both measured to be 20.0cm. The maximum percentage error in the determination of the volume is _______.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 3
Official Correct Answer:3
Step-by-Step Solution:
To determine the maximum percentage error in the volume of the cone, we first need to understand the dependence of the cone's volume on its dimensions: the diameter of the base and its height.
The volume V of a cone is given by the formula:
V=31πr2h
where r is the radius of the base and h is the height.
Given that both the diameter (D) of the base and the height (h) are measured to be 20.0cm, we can find the radius r as follows:
r=2D=220.0cm=10.0cm
Now, let's denote the errors in measuring the diameter and height as ΔD and Δh respectively.
Since the measurements are taken with a scale having a least count of 2mm, we have:
ΔD=2mm=0.2cm
and
Δh=2mm=0.2cm
To find the maximum percentage error in the volume, we need to use the formula for the propagation of relative errors. Considering the volume formula V=31πr2h, the relative errors in r and h will propagate into the volume as follows:
The relative error in the radius Δr/r is:
(rΔr)=(D/2ΔD/2)=(DΔD)=20.0cm0.2cm=0.01
The relative error in the height Δh/h is:
(hΔh)=20.0cm0.2cm=0.01
Since V is proportional to r2 and h, the total relative error in the volume is given by:
(VΔV)=2(rΔr)+(hΔh)
Substituting the relative errors, we get:
(VΔV)=2(0.01)+0.01=0.02+0.01=0.03
Hence, the maximum percentage error in the volume is:
0.03×100%=3%
Therefore, the maximum percentage error in the determination of the volume is 3%.
Q 18ChemistrySection B • Numericalcoordination compounds
+4 / -0
Among [Co(CN)4]4−,[Co(CO)3(NO)],XeF4,[PCl4]+,[PdCl4]2−,[ICl4]−,[Cu(CN)4]3− and P4 the total number of species with tetrahedral geometry is _______.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 4OR5
Official Correct Answer:4OR5
Step-by-Step Solution:
[Co(CN)4]4−⇒Co0⇒3d74s2
Due to SFL, CN−pairing and transference of electron takes place and hybridisation is dsp2
Geometry ⇒ Square planer
OR
⇒ hybridisation [Co(CN)4]4−→sp3
[Co(CO)3(NO)]→Co−1→3d84s2→3d10 ( In presence of S.F.L) here NO present as +1 state ⇒ Hybridisation →[Co(CO)3(NO)]→sp3
Geometry = Tetrahedral
XeF4⇒4bp+2lp⇒sp3d2
Geometry = Square planer
PCl4+⇒4lb+0lp
sp3⇒ tetrahedral
[PdCl4]2−⇒Pd2+,Cl−behaves as SFL
Pd2+⇒4d8⇒dsp2⇒ square planer
ICl4⊖⇒4bp+2lpHybridisation=sp3d2
Geometry = square planer
[Cu(CN))4]3−⇒Cu+1⇒3d10⇒sp3
Geometry = Tetrahedral
P4 is tetrahedral
Q 19ChemistrySection B • Numericalcompounds containing nitrogen
+4 / -2
The option(s) with correct sequence of reagents for the conversion of P to Q is(are)
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
Q 20ChemistrySection B • Numericalaldehydes ketones and carboxylic acids
+3 / -0
Read the passage carefully:
An organic compound P with molecular formula C9H18O2 decolorizes bromine water and also shows positive iodoform test. P on ozonolysis followed by treatment with H2O2 gives Q and R. While compound Q shows positive iodoform test, compound R does not give positive iodoform test. Q and R on oxidation with pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC) followed by heating give S and T, respectively. Both S and T show positive iodoform test.
Complete copolymerization of 500 moles of Q and 500 moles of R gives one mole of a single acyclic copolymer U.
[Given, atomic mass: H=1,C=12,O=16 ]
Sum of number of oxygen atoms in S and T is _______.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 2
Official Correct Answer:2
Step-by-Step Solution:
∴ Sum of oxygen atoms in S and T=1+1=2
Q 21ChemistrySection B • Numericalbiomolecules
+4 / -0
For a double strand DNA, one strand is given below:
The amount of energy required to split the double strand DNA into two single strands is _______ kcal mol−1.
[Given: Average energy per H-bond for A-T base pair =1.0kcalmol−1, G-C base pair =1.5kcalmol−1, and A-U base pair =1.25kcalmol−1. Ignore electrostatic repulsion between the phosphate groups.]
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 41
Official Correct Answer:41
Step-by-Step Solution:
A=T⇒2H-bond
G≡C⇒3H-bond
Number of A=T pair =7
Number of G≡C pair =6
Number of H-bond involve in A=T=7×2=14
Number of H-bond involve in G≡C=6×3=18
Energy required for A=T=14×1=14
Energy required for G≡C=18×1.5=27
Total energy required 14+27=41
Q 22ChemistrySection B • Numericalp block elements
+4 / -2
The compound(s) having peroxide linkage is(are)
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
Q 23ChemistrySection B • Numericalsurface chemistry
+4 / -0
To form a complete monolayer of acetic acid on 1g of charcoal, 100mL of 0.5M acetic acid was used. Some of the acetic acid remained unadsorbed. To neutralize the unadsorbed acetic acid, 40 mL of 1MNaOH solution was required. If each molecule of acetic acid occupies P×10−23m2 surface area on charcoal, the value of P is _____.
[Use given data: Surface area of charcoal =1.5×102m2g−1; Avogadro's number (NA)=6.0×1023mol−1]
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 2500
Official Correct Answer:2500
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let's first understand and break down the given information. We are provided with the following details to solve for the value of P:
1. Volume of acetic acid solution used: 100mL of 0.5M acetic acid.
2. Volume of NaOH solution used for neutralization: 40mL of 1MNaOH.
3. Surface area of the charcoal: 1.5×102m2g−1.
4. Avogadro's number: NA=6.0×1023mol−1.
Let's start with the concentration and volume of acetic acid used:
Moles of acetic acid initially=0.5 M×1000100 mL=0.05 moles
Next, let's determine the moles of NaOH used for neutralization:
Moles of NaOH=1 M×100040 mL=0.04 moles
Since NaOH completely neutralizes the unadsorbed acetic acid:
Moles of unadsorbed acetic acid=0.04 moles
Therefore, the moles of acetic acid adsorbed on the charcoal is given by:
Moles of adsorbed acetic acid=0.05−0.04=0.01 moles
Now, we need to calculate the total number of molecules of acetic acid adsorbed:
Number of molecules=0.01 moles×6.0×1023 molecules/mole=6.0×1021 molecules
Given the surface area of charcoal, we can find the total surface area:
Total surface area=1.5×102 m2/g×1 g=1.5×102 m2
Finally, we need to determine the area occupied by each molecule of acetic acid:
Area per molecule of acetic acid=Number of moleculesTotal surface area=6.0×1021 molecules1.5×102 m2
Let's perform the calculation:
Area per molecule of acetic acid=6.0×10211.5×102=0.25×10−19 m2=2.5×10−20 m2
Since the problem states that the area per molecule is P×10−23m2, we equate:
2.5×10−20=P×10−23
Solving for P:
P=10−232.5×10−20=2.5×103=2500
Therefore, the value of P is 2500.
Q 24ChemistrySection B • Numericalaldehydes ketones and carboxylic acids
+3 / -0
Read the passage carefully:
An organic compound P with molecular formula C9H18O2 decolorizes bromine water and also shows positive iodoform test. P on ozonolysis followed by treatment with H2O2 gives Q and R. While compound Q shows positive iodoform test, compound R does not give positive iodoform test. Q and R on oxidation with pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC) followed by heating give S and T, respectively. Both S and T show positive iodoform test.
Complete copolymerization of 500 moles of Q and 500 moles of R gives one mole of a single acyclic copolymer U.
[Given, atomic mass: H=1,C=12,O=16 ]
The molecular weight of U is ______ .
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 93018
Official Correct Answer:93018
Step-by-Step Solution:
Molecular mass of polymers =(104×500)+(118×500)−18×999=52000+59000−17982=93018
Q 25ChemistrySection B • Numericalchemical kinetics and nuclear chemistry
+4 / -0
A sample initially contains only U-238 isotope of uranium. With time, some of the U-238 radioactively decays into Pb−206 while the rest of it remains undisintegrated.
When the age of the sample is P×108 years, the ratio of mass of Pb−206 to that of U−238 in the sample is found to be 7. The value of P is _______.
[Given: Half-life of U−238 is 4.5×109 years; loge2=0.693 ]
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 143
Official Correct Answer:143
Step-by-Step Solution:
Given Data:
Ratio of mass of Pb206 to U238 = 17
Mass of Pb206 = 7 g
Mass of U238 = 1 g
Half-life of U238 = 4.5×109 years
loge2=0.693
Calculate Moles:
Moles of Pb206:
Moles of Pb206=2067=34×10−3 moles
Moles of U238:
Moles of U238=2381=4.2×10−3 moles
Initial Moles of U238 ( N0 ):
N0=Moles of U238 initially=Moles of Pb206+Moles of remaining U238
N0=34×10−3+4.2×10−3=38.2×10−3 moles
Calculate the Time:
Using the decay formula:
λt=lnNtN0
Where λ (decay constant):
λ=t1/2ln2=4.5×109 years0.693
Calculate lnNtN0:
lnNtN0=ln4.238.2=ln9.09
Simplify ln9.09:
ln9.09≈2.21
Plug in the Values:
t=0.6934.5×109 years×ln9.09
t=4.5×109 years×0.6932.21
t≈4.5×109×3.184≈14.33×109 years
Convert to P×108:
t=P×108 years
P×108=14.33×109
P=143.28
Thus, the value of P is 143.28.
Q 26ChemistrySection A • MCQp block elements
+3 / -1
The species formed on fluorination of phosphorus pentachloride in a polar organic solvent are
A
[PF4]+[PF6]−and [PCl4]+[PF6]−
B
[PCl4]+[PCl4F2]−and [PCl4]+[PF6]−
C
PF3 and PCl3
D
PF5 and PCl3
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
When PCl5 is fluorinated in a polar organic solvent, it forms ionic isomers. The formation of these ionic species can be understood as follows:
PCl5 in a polar organic solvent can dissociate into ionic forms, such as [PCl4]+ and [PCl6]−.
Upon fluorination, PCl5 can be converted into [PF6]− and [PCl4]+.
Further fluorination can lead to the formation of mixed ionic compounds where PCl5 can form isomers like [PCl4]+[PCl4F2]−.
The two ionic isomers formed are:
[PCl4]+[PCl4F2]−, which are colorless crystals.
[PCl4]+[PF6]−, which are white crystals.
Hence, the ionic isomers formed when PCl5 is fluorinated in a polar organic solvent are:
Option B:[PCl4]+[PCl4F2]− and [PCl4]+[PF6]−
Q 27ChemistrySection A • MCQaldehydes ketones and carboxylic acids
+3 / -1
In the following reaction sequence, the major product Q is
A
B
C
D
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Q 28ChemistrySection B • Numericalsolutions
+4 / -0
Vessel-1 contains w2g of a non-volatile solute X dissolved in w1g of water. Vessel- 2 contains w2g of another non-volatile solute Y dissolved in w1g of water. Both the vessels are at the same temperature and pressure. The molar mass of X is 80% of that of Y. The van't Hoff factor for X is 1.2 times of that of Y for their respective concentrations.
The elevation of boiling point for solution in Vessel-1 is ________ % of the solution in Vessel-2.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 150
Official Correct Answer:150
Step-by-Step Solution:
To determine the elevation of the boiling point for the solutions in both vessels, we need to use the concept of boiling point elevation. The boiling point elevation is given by the formula:
ΔTb=i⋅Kb⋅m
Where:
ΔTb is the boiling point elevation
i is the van't Hoff factor
Kb is the ebullioscopic constant (which is the same for both solutions since they are dissolved in water)
m is the molality of the solution
We need to compare the boiling point elevations for both solutions in Vessel-1 and Vessel-2.
For Vessel-1, let the boiling point elevation be ΔTb1, and for Vessel-2, let it be ΔTb2.
Let's denote the molar mass of solute Y as MY g/mol. According to the problem, the molar mass of solute X is 80% of that of Y, i.e.,
MX=0.8⋅MY
The van't Hoff factor for X is 1.2 times that of Y, i.e.,
iX=1.2⋅iY
The molality m of each solution can be calculated using the formula:
m=M⋅w1w2
Thus, the molality of X and Y solutions are:
For solute X:
mX=MX⋅w1w2=0.8⋅MY⋅w1w2
For solute Y:
mY=MY⋅w1w2
Now, substituting the values into the boiling point elevation formula, we get for Vessel-1:
This means the elevation of the boiling point for the solution in Vessel-1 is 150% of that in Vessel-2. Thus, the elevation of boiling point for solution in Vessel-1 is 150% of the elevation of the boiling point for the solution in Vessel-2.
Q 29ChemistrySection B • Numericalelectrochemistry
+4 / -2
An aqueous solution of hydrazine (N2H4) is electrochemically oxidized by O2, thereby releasing chemical energy in the form of electrical energy. One of the products generated from the electrochemical reaction is N2(g).
Choose the correct statement(s) about the above process
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
To determine the correct statement(s) regarding the electrochemical oxidation of hydrazine (N2H4) by O2, let's analyze each option in detail.
Option A:
OH− ions react with N2H4 at the anode to form N2(g) and water, releasing 4 electrons to the anode.
This statement is accurate because in an electrochemical cell, the anode is where oxidation occurs. Hydrazine can be oxidized in the presence of OH− ions to yield nitrogen gas and water, releasing electrons as a part of this redox reaction:
N2H4+4OH−→N2+4H2O+4e−
Option B:
At the cathode, N2H4 breaks to N2(g) and nascent hydrogen released at the electrode reacts with oxygen to form water.
This statement is incorrect because, usually, the cathode is where reduction occurs, not a breaking down of hydrazine. Instead, reduction reactions involve the gain of electrons. Additionally, at the cathode, it's more common for oxygen to be reduced rather than hydrazine itself breaking down.
Option C:
At the cathode, molecular oxygen gets converted to OH−.
This statement is correct. At the cathode in an alkaline medium, oxygen undergoes reduction to form hydroxide ions OH−, as depicted by the half-reaction:
O2+2H2O+4e−→4OH−
Option D:
Oxides of nitrogen are major by-products of the electrochemical process.
This statement is incorrect because the primary product from the electrochemical reaction of hydrazine is nitrogen gas (N2), and not oxides of nitrogen. The formation of oxides of nitrogen would be notable only under different specific conditions not mentioned in this context.
Therefore, the correct statements regarding the electrochemical oxidation of hydrazine by O2 are:
Option A and Option C.
Q 30ChemistrySection B • Numericalsalt analysis
+3 / -0
Read the passage carefully:
When potassium iodide is added to an aqueous solution of potassium ferricyanide, a reversible reaction is observed in which a complex P is formed. In a strong acidic medium, the equilibrium shifts completely towards P. Addition of zinc chloride to P in a slightly acidic medium results in a sparingly soluble complex Q.
The number of moles of potassium iodide required to produce two moles of P is _______.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 2
Official Correct Answer:2
Step-by-Step Solution:
KI+K3[Fe(CN)6]⇌K4[Fe(CN)6]+21I2
Moles of KI required =2
Q 31ChemistrySection A • MCQsolid state
+3 / -1
In a metal deficient oxide sample, MxY2O4 ( M and Y are metals), M is present in both +2 and +3 oxidation states and Y is in +3 oxidation state. If the fraction of M2+ ions present in M is 31, the value of X is _______ .
A
0.25
B
0.33
C
0.67
D
0.75
Official Correct Answer:Option (D)
Step-by-Step Solution:
To find the value of X in the metal deficient oxide sample MxY2O4, where M is present in both +2 and +3 oxidation states and Y is in the +3 oxidation state, and given that the fraction of M2+ ions present in M is 31, follow these steps:
Charge Balance Equation:
The total charge contributed by the cations (M and Y) must balance the total negative charge contributed by the oxide ions O:
x(M2++M3+)+2(Y3+)=4(−2)
Oxidation States and Charges:
Let the total number of M ions be x.
Given 31 of M ions are M2+, the remaining 32 are M3+.
Number of Ions:
Number of M2+ ions = 3x.
Number of M3+ ions = 32x.
Total Positive Charge:
Charge from M2+ ions = (3x)×2=32x.
Charge from M3+ ions = (32x)×3=2x.
Charge from Y3+ ions = 2×3=6.
Total Positive Charge Calculation:
32x+2x+6
Total Negative Charge:
Charge from 4 oxygen ions (O2−):
4×(−2)=−8
Setting Up the Charge Balance:
32x+2x+6=8
Solving for x:
32x+2x+6=8
32x+2x=2
32x+6x=2
38x=2
8x=6
x=86
x=0.75
Thus, the value of X is 0.75.
Answer:
Option D: 0.75
Q 32ChemistrySection B • Numericalaldehydes ketones and carboxylic acids
+4 / -0
An organic compound P having molecular formula C6H6O3 gives ferric chloride test and does not have intramolecular hydrogen bond. The compound P reacts with 3 equivalents of NH2OH to produce oxime Q. Treatment of P with excess methyl iodide in the presence of KOH produces compound R as the major product. Reaction of R with excess iso-butylmagnesium bromide followed by treatment with H3O+gives compound S as the major product.
The total number of methyl (−CH3) group(s) in compound S is ___.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 6OR12
Official Correct Answer:6OR12
Step-by-Step Solution:
Step 1: Identification of Compound P
Molecular Formula:C6H6O3
Ferric Chloride (FeCl3) Test: Indicates the presence of phenolic or enolic hydroxyl (−OH) groups.
No Intramolecular Hydrogen Bonding: This rules out adjacent arrangements like pyrogallol (1,2,3-trihydroxybenzene).
Consequently, compound P is phloroglucinol (1,3,5-trihydroxybenzene). Phloroglucinol readily exhibits keto-enol tautomerism to exist in its keto form, cyclohexane-1,3,5-trione. Because it has 3 carbonyl groups in this form, it reacts perfectly with 3 equivalents of hydroxylamine (NH2OH) to yield the trioxime Q.
Step 2: Formation of Compound R
When phloroglucinol (P) is treated with excess methyl iodide (CH3I) in the presence of a strong base like KOH, it undergoes exhaustive C-alkylation at its active methylene positions rather than O-alkylation.
Each of the three −CH2− positions in the cyclohexane-1,3,5-trione tautomer is methylated twice, leading to 2,2,4,4,6,6-hexamethylcyclohexane-1,3,5-trione as compound R.
Methyl groups in R:6 methyl groups attached directly to the ring carbons.
Step 3: Formation of Compound S
Compound R contains 3 ketone carbonyl groups. When treated with excess iso-butylmagnesium bromide (i-BuMgBr, a Grignard reagent) followed by acid hydrolysis (H3O+), each carbonyl carbon undergoes a nucleophilic addition reaction to form a tertiary alcohol.
Each ketone group adds one iso-butyl group (−CH2−CH(CH3)2).
Since there are 3 ketone groups, a total of 3iso-butyl groups are added.
Step 4: Total Methyl Group Count in S
Let's add up all the methyl (−CH3) groups present in the final structure S:
From the core structure of R:6 methyl groups
From the 3 attached iso-butyl groups:3×2=6 methyl groups
Total number of methyl groups=6+6=12
Q 33ChemistrySection A • MCQatomic structure
+3 / -1
According to Bohr's model, the highest kinetic energy is associated with the electron in the
A
first orbit of H atom
B
first orbit of He+
C
second orbit of He+
D
second orbit of Li2+
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
According to Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom, the kinetic energy of an electron in a particular orbit is given by the expression:
K.E.=21mv2
Where m is the mass of the electron and v is its velocity. However, a more useful expression involving only constants is:
K.E.=n213.6eVZ2
Where Z is the atomic number and n is the principal quantum number of the orbit. This formula shows that the kinetic energy of the electron is directly proportional to the square of the atomic number Z and inversely proportional to the square of the orbit number n.
Let's analyze each option keeping the above formula in mind:
Option A: First orbit of hydrogen (H, Z=1, n=1)
K.E.=(1)213.6eV(1)2=13.6eV
Option B: First orbit of He+ (Z=2, n=1)
K.E.=(1)213.6eV(2)2=54.4eV
Option C: Second orbit of He+ (Z=2, n=2)
K.E.=(2)213.6eV(2)2=13.6eV
Option D: Second orbit of Li2+ (Z=3, n=2)
K.E.=(2)213.6eV(3)2=30.6eV
From the above calculations, it is evident that the highest kinetic energy is associated with the electron in the first orbit of He+ (Option B), which is 54.4eV.
Q 34ChemistrySection B • Numericalsalt analysis
+3 / -0
Read the passage carefully:
When potassium iodide is added to an aqueous solution of potassium ferricyanide, a reversible reaction is observed in which a complex P is formed. In a strong acidic medium, the equilibrium shifts completely towards P. Addition of zinc chloride to P in a slightly acidic medium results in a sparingly soluble complex Q.
The number of zinc ions present in the molecular formula of Q is _______.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 3OR2
Q 40MathematicsSection B • Numericalapplication of integration
+4 / -0
Let the function f:[1,∞)→R be defined by
f(t)={(−1)n+12,2(2n+1−t)f(2n−1)+2(t−(2n−1))f(2n+1), if t=2n−1,n∈N, if 2n−1<t<2n+1,n∈N.
Define g(x)=∫1xf(t)dt,x∈(1,∞). Let α denote the number of solutions of the equation g(x)=0 in the interval (1,8] and β=x→l+limx−1g(x).
Then the value of α+β is equal to _______.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 5
Official Correct Answer:5
Step-by-Step Solution:
The values of f(t) at the odd integers are obtained directly from the first line of the definition.
f(2n−1)=(−1)n+12⇒f(1)=2,f(3)=−2,f(5)=2,f(7)=−2,…
Between two successive odd integers 2n−1 and 2n+1 the function is a straight-line joining these end-values, i.e. it is linear on every interval [2n−1,2n+1].
The integral required is g(x)=∫1xf(t)dt,x>1.
Because g′(x)=f(x), the right-hand derivative of g at x=1 equals f(1):
\beta=\lim_{x\to1^{+}}\frac{g(x)}{x-1}=g'(1^{+})=f(1)=2.\tag{1}
Next we look for the zeros of g(x) in (1,8].
Observe first that on each interval [2n−1,2n+1] the end-values of f are equal in magnitude and opposite in sign, so the average value of f over the full length 2 is zero. Hence
∫2n−12n+1f(t)dt=0⟹g(2n+1)=g(2n−1).
Starting from g(1)=0, this gives successively
g(3)=0,g(5)=0,g(7)=0,…
Thus x=3,5,7 are certainly zeros lying in (1,8].
To see whether any additional zeros occur inside the open sub-intervals, evaluate g(x) on each of them.
Case 1: x∈[1,3]
The straight-line expression for f here is f(t)=2−2(t−1).
Integrating,
g(x)=∫1x[2−2(t−1)]dt=(2x−(x−1)2)−2=−x2+4x−3.
This quadratic satisfies g(1)=g(3)=0 and g(2)=1>0,
so no other root occurs in (1,3).
Case 2: x∈[3,5]
Here f(t)=−2+2(t−3). Put y=x−3(0≤y≤2). Then
g(x)=∫3x[−2+2(t−3)]dt=−2y+y2=y(y−2).
Hence g(3)=g(5)=0 and g(x)<0 for x∈(3,5).
Again, no extra root.
Case 3: x∈[5,7]
With u=x−5(0≤u≤2) one obtains
g(x)=2u−u2=u(2−u)>0 in (5,7), and only the end-points give zeros.
Case 4: x∈[7,8]
Let v=x−7. The integral gives
g(x)=−2v+v2=v(v−2)<0 for v∈(0,1], so no zero arises in (7,8] except the already counted one at x=7.
Collecting all solutions in (1,8]:
x=3,\;5,\;7\quad\Rightarrow\quad\alpha=3.\tag{2}
Finally, from \eqref1 and \eqref2
α+β=3+2=5.
Hence the required value equals 5.
Q 41MathematicsSection A • MCQapplication of integration
+3 / -1
Let S={(x,y)∈R×R:x≥0,y≥0,y2≤4x,y2≤12−2x and 3y+8x≤58}. If the area of the region S is α2, then α is equal to
A
217
B
317
C
417
D
517
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
We have to find the area of the region
S={(x,y)∈R×R:x≥0,y≥0,y2≤4x,y2≤12−2x,3y+8x≤58}
(1) From y2≤4x we get x≥4y2.
This is the region to the right of the right-opening parabola y2=4x.
(2) From y2≤12−2x we get x≤6−2y2.
This is the region to the left of the left-opening parabola y2=12−2x whose vertex is at (6,0).
(3) From 3y+8x≤58 write 8=22:
3y+22x≤102⟹x≤22102−3y=5−223y
This is the region to the left of the straight line 3y+22x=102.
Combining (1) and (2):
4y2≤x≤6−2y2
For such an x to exist we need
4y2≤6−2y2⟹3y2≤24⟹y2≤8⟹0≤y≤22
Now decide which of the two upper bounds
x1=6−2y2,x2=5−223y
is smaller (the region must satisfy both).
Define
A straight line drawn from the point P(1,3,2), parallel to the line 1x−2=2y−4=1z−6, intersects the plane L1:x−y+3z=6 at the point Q. Another straight line which passes through Q and is perpendicular to the plane L1 intersects the plane L2:2x−y+z=−4 at the point R. Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
The given point is P(1,3,2) and the line parallel to which we must draw a line through P is 1x−2=2y−4=1z−6
The direction ratios of this line are 1,2,1, so a line through P with the same direction has parametric form x=1+t,y=3+2t,z=2+t−(1)
This line meets the plane L1:x−y+3z=6 at the point Q. Substitute the coordinates from (1) into the plane:
(1+t)−(3+2t)+3(2+t)=6 1+t−3−2t+6+3t=6 4+2t=6⟹t=1
Putting t=1 back in (1) gives Q(2,5,3)
Vector PQ=(2−1,5−3,3−2)=(1,2,1), so PQ=12+22+12=6
Thus statement A is true.
A line through Q perpendicular to plane L1 must have direction equal to the normal of L1.
Since L1 is x−y+3z=6, its normal vector is (1,−1,3).
Parametric equations of this perpendicular line are x=2+s,y=5−s,z=3+3s−(2)
This line meets the plane L2:2x−y+z=−4 at point R.
Insert the coordinates from (2) into L2:
Thus statement B, which claimed R(1,6,3), is false.
Centroid G of △PQR is G(31+2+1,33+5+6,32+3+0)=(34,314,35)
Hence statement C is true.
For statement D, compute the remaining two sides:
QR=(1)2+(1)2+(−3)2=11 RP=(0)2+(−3)2+22=13
Perimeter =PQ+QR+RP=6+11+13, not 2+6+11, so statement D is false.
Therefore the correct statements are:
Option A and Option C.
Q 43MathematicsSection B • Numericalparabola
+4 / -0
A normal with slope 61 is drawn from the point (0,−α) to the parabola x2=−4ay, where a>0. Let L be the line passing through (0,−α) and parallel to the directrix of the parabola. Suppose that L intersects the parabola at two points A and B. Let r denote the length of the latus rectum and s denote the square of the length of the line segment AB. If r:s=1:16, then the value of 24a is _______.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 12
Official Correct Answer:12
Step-by-Step Solution:
The parabola is x2=−4ay with a>0.
For this parabola:
• Vertex: (0,0) • Focus: (0,−a) • Directrix: y=a
• Length of the latus rectum r=4a
1. Equation of the required normal
Let the point of contact on the parabola be (x1,y1).
Write the parabola as y=−4ax2, so
dxdy=−2ax
Therefore, the slope of the tangent at (x1,y1) is mt=−2ax1.
The slope of the normal is the negative reciprocal: mn=x12a.
Given that the required normal has slope 61, equate:
x12a=61⟹x1=2a6
Find the corresponding y1 on the parabola:
y1=−4ax12=−4a(2a6)2=−4a4a26=−6a
Thus the point of contact is (2a6,−6a).
2. Locate the external point
The normal passes through the given point (0,−α) and has slope 61.
Equation of the normal through (0,−α):
y+α=61x⟹y=6x−α
Substitute (x1,y1)=(2a6,−6a) into this line:
−6a=62a6−α=2a−α
Hence α=2a+6a=8a.
3. Intersection of line L with the parabola
Line L passes through (0,−α) and is parallel to the directrix y=a, so L is horizontal:
y=−α=−8a
Intersect with x2=−4ay:
x2=−4a(−8a)=32a2
Thus the two intersection points are A(4a2,−8a),B(−4a2,−8a).
4. Lengths r and s
Latus-rectum length: r=4a.
Length AB=4a2−(−4a2)=8a2, so
s=(AB)2=(8a2)2=128a2
Given sr=161 :
128a24a=161⟹32a1=161⟹16=32a⟹a=21
5. Required value 24a=24×21=12
Hence the answer is 12.
Q 44MathematicsSection B • Numericalprobability
+4 / -0
A bag contains N balls out of which 3 balls are white, 6 balls are green, and the remaining balls are blue. Assume that the balls are identical otherwise. Three balls are drawn randomly one after the other without replacement. For i=1,2,3, let Wi,Gi, and Bi denote the events that the ball drawn in the ith draw is a white ball, green ball, and blue ball, respectively. If the probability P(W1∩G2∩B3)=5N2 and the conditional probability P(B3∣W1∩G2)=92, then N equals ________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 11
Official Correct Answer:11
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let the total number of balls be N.
Numbers of each colour:
White = 3
Green = 6
Blue = N−9
Because the draws are without replacement, multiply the successive probabilities.
Step 1 : Compute P(W1∩G2∩B3) P(W1)=N3
After removing one white ball, total balls become N−1 and green balls remain 6, so P(G2∣W1)=N−16
After removing a white and a green ball, total balls become N−2 and blue balls are still N−9, so P(B3∣W1∩G2)=N−2N−9
Therefore P(W1∩G2∩B3)=N3⋅N−16⋅N−2N−9=N(N−1)(N−2)18(N−9)
This probability is given to be 5N2, hence N(N−1)(N−2)18(N−9)=5N2−(1)
Step 2 : Compute the conditional probability P(B3∣W1∩G2)
First find P(W1∩G2): P(W1∩G2)=N3⋅N−16=N(N−1)18
Thus P(B3∣W1∩G2)=P(W1∩G2)P(W1∩G2∩B3)=N(N−1)18N(N−1)(N−2)18(N−9)=N−2N−9
This conditional probability is given to be 92, so N−2N−9=92−(2)
Step 3 : Solve equation (2) for N
Cross-multiplying: 9(N−9)=2(N−2) 9N−81=2N−4 7N=77 N=11
Step 4 : Verification with equation (1) (optional but reassuring)
Substitute N=11 in (1):
Left side =11⋅10⋅918(11−9)=99018⋅2=99036=552
Right side =5⋅112=552
Both sides match, confirming the value.
Factor out the common terms x2−x+3x2023+2024x+2025⋅e−πx:
f(x)=x2−x+3x2023+2024x+2025e−πx(sinx+2)
To solve f(x)=0 we must examine when each factor can be zero.
1. The exponential factor e−πx is never zero for any real x.
2. The quadratic denominator x2−x+3 has discriminant (−1)2−4(1)(3)=−11<0, so it is always positive and never zero.
3. The factor sinx+2 cannot be zero because sinx∈[−1,1], so sinx+2∈[1,3] for all x∈R.
Therefore the only possible zeros come from
x2023+2024x+2025=0
Define g(x)=x2023+2024x+2025. To count its real roots, study monotonicity:
g′(x)=2023x2022+2024
Since x2022≥0 for every real x, we have g′(x)≥2024>0. Thus g(x) is strictly increasing on the entire real line.
A strictly increasing odd-degree polynomial with positive leading coefficient satisfies
limx→−∞g(x)=−∞,limx→+∞g(x)=+∞
By the Intermediate Value Theorem, it crosses the x-axis exactly once. Hence g(x)=0 has exactly one real solution.
Because no other factor of f(x) can become zero, this single root of g(x) is the only root of f(x).
Therefore, the number of solutions of f(x)=0 in R is
1
Q 46MathematicsSection B • Numericalfunctions
+4 / -0
Let f:R→R be a function such that f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y) for all x,y∈R, and g:R→(0,∞) be a function such that g(x+y)=g(x)g(y) for all x,y∈R. If f(5−3)=12 and g(3−1)=2, then the value of (f(41)+g(−2)−8)g(0) is _________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 51
Official Correct Answer:51
Step-by-Step Solution:
The function f:R→R satisfies the additive rule f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)∀x,y∈R.
For such a function:
• f(0)=f(0+0)=f(0)+f(0)⇒f(0)=0.
• For any integer n, f(nx)=nf(x) (apply the rule n times).
• For any rational r=qp, f(rx)=rf(x) (use the integer result on qx and divide).
Given f(−53)=12, we first find f(53): f(53)=−f(−53)=−12.
Now choose x=53 and a rational multiplier
r=3/51/4=125
so that rx=41. Using the rational-multiple rule,
f(41)=rf(x)=125(−12)=−5.
The function g:R→(0,∞) satisfies the multiplicative rule g(x+y)=g(x)g(y)∀x,y∈R.
For such a function:
• g(0)=g(0+0)=g(0)2,g(0)>0⇒g(0)=1.
• For any integer n, g(nx)=g(x)n (apply the rule n times).
• Consequently, for rational r=qp, g(rx)=g(x)r (use the integer result and take roots).
Given g(−31)=2, we obtain g(31)=g(−1/3)1=21.
Write −2=6(−31). Using the integer-multiple rule,
g(−2)=g(−31)6=26=64.
Now evaluate the required expression:
$(f(1/4)+g(−2)−8)g(0)=((−5)+64−8)(1)=51.
Hence the value is 51.
Q 47MathematicsSection B • Numericalvector algebra
+4 / -0
Let p=2i^+j^+3k^ and q=i^−j^+k^. If for some real numbers α,β, and γ, we have
15i^+10j^+6k^=α(2p+q)+β(p−2q)+γ(p×q),
then the value of γ is ________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 2
Official Correct Answer:2
Step-by-Step Solution:
Write the given vectors in component form: p=2i^+j^+3k^→(2,1,3),q=i^−j^+k^→(1,−1,1).
First compute the three auxiliary vectors that appear on the right-hand side.
37−0.2γ=−15+8.6γ.
Multiply by 3:
7−0.2γ=−45+25.8γ⟹52=26γ⟹γ=2.
Hence, the required value is 2.
Q 48MathematicsSection B • Numericalpermutations and combinations
+3 / -0
Read the passage carefully:
Let S={1,2,3,4,5,6} and X be the set of all relations R from S to S that satisfy both the following properties:
i. R has exactly 6 elements.
ii. For each (a,b)∈R, we have ∣a−b∣≥2.
Let Y={R∈X : The range of R has exactly one element } and Z={R∈X:R is a function from S to S}.
Let n(A) denote the number of elements in a set A.
If the value of n(Y)+n(Z) is k2, then ∣k∣ is _________.
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 36
Official Correct Answer:36
Step-by-Step Solution:
We first list all ordered pairs (a,b) in S×S that satisfy the restriction ∣a−b∣≥2.
Total ordered pairs in S×S are 6×6=36.
Forbidden pairs:
• Diagonal pairs with a=b → 6 pairs.
• Pairs with ∣a−b∣=1.
When b=a+1: (1,2),(2,3),(3,4),(4,5),(5,6) → 5 pairs.
When b=a−1: (2,1),(3,2),(4,3),(5,4),(6,5) → 5 pairs.
So forbidden pairs = 6+5+5=16.
Allowed pairs (with ∣a−b∣≥2) = 36−16=20.
Every relation R∈X is a subset of these 20 allowed pairs containing exactly 6 elements.
Choosing any 6 of the 20 allowed pairs gives such a relation, and every such choice is valid.
Hence
n(X)=(620)=mC6
which implies m=20.
Final Answer: 20
Q 49MathematicsSection A • MCQlimits continuity and differentiability
+3 / -1
Let k∈R. If x→0+lim(sin(sinkx)+cosx+x)x2=e6, then the value of k is
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Official Correct Answer:Option (B)
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let
F(x)=(sin(sinkx)+cosx+x)x2
and put
L=limx→0+F(x).
We know the standard limit property: if u(x)→0 and v(x)→∞ such that u(x)v(x)→ℓ, then
limx→0(1+u(x))v(x)=eℓ.
Hence we must rewrite the base inside the bracket in the form 1+u(x).
Expand each elementary function near x=0 (retain terms up to x2 because the final coefficient of x decides the limit):
1. cosx=1−2x2+O(x4).
2. sinkx=kx−6k3x3+O(x5).
3. For small y, siny=y−6y3+O(y5).
Put y=sinkx in this expansion:
For small u(x), ln(1+u)=u−2u2+O(u3).
Using only the linear part (higher powers vanish after multiplying by x2 and then letting x→0):
ln(1+u(x))=u(x)+O(u(x)2)=(k+1)x+O(x2).
Therefore
lnF(x)=x2[(k+1)x+O(x2)]=2(k+1)+O(x).
Sending x→0+ yields
limx→0+lnF(x)=2(k+1).
Consequently
L=exp[2(k+1)]=e2(k+1).
The problem states that L=e6, so
2(k+1)=6⟹k+1=3⟹k=2.
Hence the required value of k is 2.
Option B which is: 2
Q 50MathematicsSection B • Numericalparabola
+4 / -2
Let A1,B1,C1 be three points in the xy-plane. Suppose that the lines A1C1 and B1C1 are tangents to the curve y2=8x at A1 and B1, respectively. If O=(0,0) and C1=(−4,0), then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?
Official Correct Answer:Declared in Solution
Step-by-Step Solution:
The given parabola is y2=8x. Rewrite it in standard form y2=4ax to identify the parameter a.
Here 4a=8⇒a=2. For the parabola y2=4ax, a point on the curve can be written in parametric form as
P(t):(at2,2at) and the tangent at this point is
ty=x+at2.
Thus for our curve a=2, so
Point P(t)=(2t2,4t),
Tangent ty=x+2t2−(1).
The tangents at points A1 and B1 pass through the fixed point C1=(−4,0).
Substituting x=−4,y=0 in equation (1):
t(0)=(−4)+2t2⟹2t2=4⟹t2=2.
Hence t=2 or t=−2.
Two distinct parameters give the two points of contact:
If t1=+2 → A1(2(2)2,42)=(4,42).
If t2=−2 → B1(2(2)2,4(−2))=(4,−42).
Thus
A1=(4,42),B1=(4,−42),C1=(−4,0).
Checking Option A
Length OA1=(4−0)2+(42−0)2=16+32=48=43.
Option A is TRUE.
Checking Option B
Since A1 and B1 have the same x-coordinate, A1B1 is vertical:
A1B1=∣42−(−42)∣=82=16.
Option B is FALSE.
Checking the orthocentre for Options C and D
Side A1B1 is the vertical line x=4.
Therefore, the altitude from C1 is the horizontal line y=0 (the x-axis).
Find the altitude from A1:
Slope of side B1C1mBC=4−(−4)−42−0=8−42=−22.
Hence slope of the altitude from A1 (perpendicular to B1C1) is
mA=22=2.
Equation of this altitude through A1(4,42):
y−42=2(x−4).
Intersect this with y=0 (altitude from C1): 0−42=2(x−4)⟹−4=x−4⟹x=0.
The two altitudes meet at H=(0,0). Thus the orthocentre is the origin.
Option C (orthocentre (0,0)) is TRUE, while Option D (orthocentre (1,0)) is FALSE.
Final correct statements:
Option A and Option C.
Q 51MathematicsSection B • Numericalpermutations and combinations
+3 / -0
Read the passage carefully:
Let S={1,2,3,4,5,6} and X be the set of all relations R from S to S that satisfy both the following properties:
i. R has exactly 6 elements.
ii. For each (a,b)∈R, we have ∣a−b∣≥2.
Let Y={R∈X : The range of R has exactly one element } and Z={R∈X:R is a function from S to S}.
Let n(A) denote the number of elements in a set A.
If n(X)=mC6, then the value of m is _____
Answer Format:Enter numerical value rounded to the nearest integerOfficial Answer: 20
Official Correct Answer:20
Step-by-Step Solution:
We first list all ordered pairs (a,b) in S×S that satisfy the restriction ∣a−b∣≥2.
Total ordered pairs in S×S are 6×6=36.
Forbidden pairs:
• Diagonal pairs with a=b → 6 pairs.
• Pairs with ∣a−b∣=1.
When b=a+1: (1,2),(2,3),(3,4),(4,5),(5,6) → 5 pairs.
When b=a−1: (2,1),(3,2),(4,3),(5,4),(6,5) → 5 pairs.
So forbidden pairs = 6+5+5=16.
Allowed pairs (with ∣a−b∣≥2) = 36−16=20.
Every relation R∈X is a subset of these 20 allowed pairs containing exactly 6 elements.
Choosing any 6 of the 20 allowed pairs gives such a relation, and every such choice is valid.